Patient Care Exam 2

Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as

A) Pathogens

B) Endospores

C) Normal flora

D) Parasites

C

Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on

A) Staining

B) Oxygen requirements

C) Shape

D) All of the choices are correct

D

Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of

A) Virus

B) Bacterium

C) Fungus

D) Protozoan

B

Yeasts are one type of

A) Bacteria

B) Mold

C) Fungus

D) Prion

C

Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called

A) Endospores

B) Gram-negative

C) Cocci

D) Facultative organisms

A

TB, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are diseases caused by

A) Fungi

B) Prions

C) Protozoa

D) Bacteria

D

The term reservoir of infection refers to the

A) Place where the pathogen resides

B) Method by which the pathogen enters the body

C) Method by which the pathogen leaves the body

D) Individual with reduced natural resistance to infection

A

The term nosocomial applies to infections that are

A) Caused by viruses

B) Hospital acquired

C) Caused by normal flora in people weakened by other diseases

D) Transmitted by droplet contamination

B

An object that has been contaminated with pathogenic organism is called a

A) Vehicle

B) Fomite

C) Vector

D) Prion

B

Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 micrometers or smaller are called

A) Droplet nuclei

B) Droplet contamination

C) Vehicles

D) Fomites

A

The immunity transferred from mother to child at birth or via breast milk is classified as

A) Natural resistance

B) Acquired resistance

C) Active immunity

D) Passive immunity

D

HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as

A) Multidrug resistant

B) Nosocomial

C) Epidemic

D) Bloodborne

B

The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the US is the

A) CDC

B) WHO

C) OSHA

D) MRSA

A

A gastrointestinal HAI that causes diarrhea and is caused by a gram-positive spore forming bacillus is

A) TB

B) Hep A

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) C diff

D

Mucocutaneous candida, disseminated herpes, cytomegalovirus, and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are all examples of

A) HAIs

B) Multidrug resistant infections

C) Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS

D) Airborne dieases

C

The risk of contracting HIV from an occupational needlestick injury is

A) 100% unless promptly treated

B) Approximately 50%

C) 10-20%

D) Less than 1%

D

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination

A) Hep B

B) Hep C

C) HIV/AIDS

D) C diff

A

A particulate respirator is essential for protection from exposure to which of the following diseases

A) Hep A

B) TB

C) HIV

D) Anthrax

B

Under the system of protective or neutropenic precautions, the “dirty” technologist touches the

A) Xray equipment

B) Patient

C) Covered IR

D) Patient belongings

A

What is the most likely mode of transmission for hepatitis A?

A) Airborne contamination

B) Droplet contamination

C) Vehicle or direct contact

D) Vector

C

T/F There is more than one type of coronavirus variant

T

COVID-19 is spread through which of the following methods

A) Airborne

B) Droplet

C) Contact

D) Droplet/contact

E) Airborne/contact

D

The standard principles of surgical asepsis include:

A) Not passing between the surgeon and the sterile field

B) Never reaching across a sterile field

C) Discarding items that become contaminated

D) All of the choices are correct

D

Which of the following methods of sterilization is the quickest and most convenient method for items that can withstand heat and moisture

A) Conventional gas sterilization

B) Autoclaving

C) Chemical sterilization

D) Gas plasma technology

B

The fastest and safest method for sterilizing items that cannot withstand heat is:
A) Chemical sterilization

B) Gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

C) Gas plasma technology

D) Autoclaving

C

Which of the following sterilization methods requires the dissipation of poisonous gas?

A) Gas plasma technology

B) Chemical Sterilization

C) Gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

D) Autoclaving

C

When a sterile procedure is delayed, which of the following is not an appropriate method of dealing with the sterile tray

A) If the tray is not open, do not open it

B) If the tray is open, set it aside and avoid touching it

C) If the tray is open, cover it with a sterile drape

D) If the tray is open, discard it

B

The surgical hand rub is an alternative to:

A) Sterile gloving

B) The surgical hand scrub

C) Protective gloving

D) The open gloving technique

B

When preparing for a surgical procedure that requires complete sterile attire, which of the following steps takes place after the surgical hand scrub

A) Put on surgical mask

B) Put on surgical gown

C) Open a pack of sterile towels

D) Cover hair with cap or hood

B

Which of the following is not worn by a radiographer when performing imaging procedures in surgery

A) Surgical mask

B) Cap or hood

C) Scrub clothes

D) Sterile gown

D

It is important to check the patient’s chart for I&O orders when patients:

A) Arrive in the imaging department

B) Are ready to leave the imaging department

C) Request a drink of water

D) Are receiving IV fluids

C

When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to:

A) Wear protective gloves

B) Measure the amount emptied

C) Record the amount in the chart

D) All of the choices are correct

D

Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit

A) Supine

B) Prone

C) Trendelenburg

D) Lateral recumbent

D

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:

A) Bacteria on the skin

B) Failure to keep warm

C) Lack of adequate circulation

D) Improper use of restraints

C

What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet

Trendelenburg

The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is

Incontinence

It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:

A) In the semi-fowlers position

B) With a bolster under the knees

C) Prone

D) All of the choices are correct

D

A physician’s order is legally required to:

A) Raise the side rails on a bed or stretcher

B) Immobilize a child for chest radiography

C) Use a Velcro strap to prevent a fall from the xray table

D) Use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to a bed

D

Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of:

A) Nonaccidental trauma

B) Lordosis

C) Incontinence

D) Orthopnea

A

Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse

A) Incontinence

B) Bruises, abrasions, or burns

C) Forgetfulness

D) Confusion

B

Bariatric patients may need:

A) A wide wheelchair

B) Financial assistance

C) Beds with bumpers

D) An escort to the imaging department

A

Part of your initial assessment of a patients status should include assessment of the body temperature by:

A) Evaluating skin temperature by touch

B) Taking a rectal temperature

C) Checking the temperature graph in the patients chart

D) Taking an axillary temperature

A

110/78 mm Hg is a typical measurement for which of the following vital signs

A) Blood pressure

B) Pulse rate

C) Respiratory rate

D) Body temperature

A

A serum bilirubin test is used to measure:

A) Blood oxygen levels

B) Nitrogen in blood

C) Blood glucose status when fasting

D) Conjugated hemoglobin content in blood

D

When a patients appearance takes on a bluish color, especially in the nail beds and mucous membranes of the mouth, the patient is described as

A) Jaundiced

B) Hypertensive

C) Cyanotic

D) Hyperventilating

C

The normal heart rate for an adult is:

A) 12 to 20 bpm

B) 80 to 120 bpm

C) 60 to 100 bpm

D) 98 to 99 bpm

C

When the heart rate is measured by placing a stethoscope on the chest directly over the heart, this is called an

A) Carotid pulse

B) Apical pulse

C) Pedal pulse

D) Radial pulse

B

The term tachycardia refers to

A) High blood pressure

B) Rapid breathing

C) Rapid heart rate

D) Fever

C

A chronic lung condition that may cause shortness of breath is

A) Bradycardia

B) Azotemia

C) Emphysema

D) Pyrexia

C

Which of the following terms does not describe a level of consciousness

A) Alert and conscious

B) Drowsy but responsive

C) Diaphoretic

D) Comatose

C

Living organisms that are too small to be seen with the naked eye

Microorganisms

T/F Most microorganisms do not cause infection or disease and are essential for our well-being

T

Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing infection or diseases are called

Normal flora

Microorganisms that cause infections and diseases are called

Pathogens

Very small, single celled organisms with a cell wall and an atypical nucleus that lacks a membrane

Bacteria

The __ is essential for the survival of the bacterium, making it the target for destruction by some antibiotics

Cell wall

T/F Bacteria grow independently and can replicate without a host cell

T

Most bacteria have one of what 3 shapes

Spherical (cocci), rod-shaped (bacilli), or spiral (spirilla or spirochetes)

Bacteria that require oxygen to grow are called

Obligate aerobes

Bacteria that will not grow in the presence of oxygen are called

Anaerobes

Bacteria that can adapt and grow under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions are called

Facultative organisms

A resistant form of bacterium that is produced within the cell when environmental conditions are unfavorable

Endospores

TB, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are caused by

Bacteria

Subcellular organisms that are among the smallest known disease-causing organisms

Viruses

A fully developed viral particle, called a __, is made up of genetic material, either DNA or RNA which is protected by an outer protein coating called the capsid

Virion

Can viruses survive independently?

No, they require a host cell

Hepatitis, Epstein-Barr, and varicella are caused by what

Viruses

__ occur as single celled yeasts or as long, branched, filament-like structures called molds that are composed on many cells

Fungi

There are more than __ diverse species of a fungi

100,000

Infections caused by usually nonpathogenic organisms

Opportunistic infections

Athletes foot, ringworm, histoplasmosis, and coccidioidomycosis are caused by what

Fungi

The smallest and least understood of all pathogens is the __, which was discovered in 1983

Prion

Scientists believe that prions may be infectious __

Proteins

Mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, and even dementia are caused by

Prions

__ are complex, single celled animals that generally exist as free-living organisms

Protozoa

A few protozoa are parasitic and live within the human body. They can be classified as what 2 things?

Motile (moving) or nonmotile

Amebiasis, trichomoniasis, and toxoplasmosis are caused by what

Protozoa

Pathogenic organisms possess certain properties called __ that distinguish them from nonpathogenic organisms or normal flora

Virulence factors

T/F Normal flora can cause infection when they are located outside their usual environment or when the hosts immune system is compromised

T

The __ may be any place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat

Reservoir of infection

The reservoir of infection must provide what 3 things

Moisture, nutrients, and a suitable temperature

Animals are the reservoir for what

Salmonella

Soil is the reservoir for what

Tetanus

Food is the reservoir for what

Botulinum

Water is the reservoir for what

Typhus and Legionnaires’ disease

The __ from the human body may be any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions, or secretions leave the body

Portal of exit

__ are frequently patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection

Susceptible host

Infections acquired in hospitals or healthcare facilities are termed __ when they affect patients. When they affect healthcare workers, they are termed _

Nosocomial infections or healthcare-associated infections

Occupationally acquired infections

The __ is the route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host

Portal of entry

What is the most direct way to intervene in the cycle of infection

To prevent transmission of the infectious organism from the reservoir to the susceptible host

This transmission mode requires that the host be touched by an infected person and that the organisms be placed in direct contact with susceptible tissue

Direct contact

Any object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms is called a

Fomite

A contaminated urinary catheter is an example of a

Fomite

A __ is an arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious to a new host

Vector

Mosquitoes, fleas, and ticks are examples of

Vectors

A __ is any medium that transports microorganisms. Examples include contaminated food, water, drugs, and blood

Vehicle

__ transmission often occurs when an infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings in the vicinity of a susceptible host

Droplet contamination

__ transmission occurs from dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei

Airborne transmission

__ are defined as particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 micrometers or smaller

Droplet nuclei

The human body is protected from the invasion of microorganisms in what 3 ways

Natural resistance, acquired resistance, and short-term passive immunity