psych: Patient Examining (share)

Misbehaviour(s) of doctors is/are:

1) identification instead of empathy

2) projection of their personal feelings onto the patient, establishment of an emotional relationship - with its ethical and legal consequences

3) treatment of the patient as an impersonal medical case because of the lack of empathy

4) balancing between confidentiality and objectivity

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) identification instead of empathy

2) projection of their personal feelings onto the patient, establishment of an emotional relationship - with its ethical and legal consequences

3) treatment of the patient as an impersonal medical case because of the lack of empathy

EXPLANATION

The right medical behaviour is based on the equilibrium of confidentiality and professionalism, while the impersonalization or identification with the patient is faulty. Doctors should not get involved with patients in emotional relationships; in addition this has legal and ethical consequences.

A psychiatric symptom might be:

A) a subjective experience or change of experiences – especially the suffering

B) a somatic symptom of disorder of function

C) too frequent or inadequate behaviour or the lack of it

D) combinations of the above

D) combinations of the above

EXPLANATION

psychiatric symptoms might manifest in the form of subjective experience changes, somatic symptoms or dysfunctions, excessive behaviour, lack of reactions or inadequate behaviour

Building an effective doctor-patient relationship:

1) the first meeting has a prominent role

2) it is an essential condition that the doctor spends only the time necessary - equal to that spent with already known patients on control visits - with the first meeting with new patients

3) attention, honest, interest and the feeling of understanding are exceptionally important in creating trust

4) the office and clothing of the doctor should emphasize the professional superiority

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

1) the first meeting has a prominent role

3) attention, honest, interest and the feeling of understanding are exceptionally important in creating trust

EXPLANATION

the first meeting has a prominent role, plenty of time should be spent with the first visit, attention, honest interest and the feeling of understanding are exceptionally important in creating trust, while emphasizing the asymmetry might alienate the patient

Some technical elements of the psychiatric clinical interview are:

1) comments instead of questions

2) paraphrasing the last sentence

3) short summarization for better understanding and to create the feeling of being understood

4) positive and hopeful atmosphere - like at any doctor-patient meeting

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) comments instead of questions

2) paraphrasing the last sentence

3) short summarization for better understanding and to create the feeling of being understood

4) positive and hopeful atmosphere - like at any doctor-patient meeting

EXPLANATION

Technical elements of the psychiatric interview for steering the conversation are (amongst others) paraphrasing the last sentences, comments instead of questions and short summarizations. Giving hope and creating a positive atmosphere is essential in doctor-patient interactions.

Agitation means excessive motor or verbal activity, which manifests in:

1) walking up and down

2) self harming

3) yelling, screaming

4) provocation, threatening gestures and physical destruction

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) walking up and down

2) self harming

3) yelling, screaming

4) provocation, threatening gestures and physical destruction

EXPLANATION

Agitation is excessive motor activity accompanied by a feeling of internal tension and severe anxiety. The agitated activity is usually non-productive and repetitive (e.g. walking up and down). Self-harm, shouting, screaming, but also threats and physical destruction may appear.

Priority interventions during the emergency service of agitated patients include:

1) empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident and consequent verbal intervention

2) optimize the environment

3) patient and consequent helping attitude, offering food, drink and other forms of help

4) voluntary and/or emergency medical treatment

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident and consequent verbal intervention

2) optimize the environment

3) patient and consequent helping attitude, offering food, drink and other forms of help

4) voluntary and/or emergency medical treatment

EXPLANATION

During the emergency care of an agitated patient, the attitude of avoiding opposition, empathic, patient and consistent assistance is the best. Eating, drinking, offering other help, and performing simple tests are often helpful. A calm, patient, understanding, but firm and consistent verbal intervention is the key element in the management of such situations. It is correct to optimize the environment (e.g. avoiding bright lights) before applying medicinal therapeutic options. It may also be necessary to take medication, ideally with the patient's consent, orally.

In the treatment of acute agitation:

1) the aim is to control the aggressive behaviour and to preserve the good doctor-patient relationship

2) the first step is the psychosocial intervention (empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident, consequent and helpful)

3) the second step is the (orientational) physical and psychiatric differential-diagnosis (whether the cause is somatic, intoxication or primary mental disorder)

4) the third step is the drug therapy

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) the aim is to control the aggressive behaviour and to preserve the good doctor-patient relationship

2) the first step is the psychosocial intervention (empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident, consequent and helpful)

3) the second step is the (orientational) physical and psychiatric differential-diagnosis (whether the cause is somatic, intoxication or primary mental disorder)

4) the third step is the drug therapy

EXPLANATION

the aim is to control the aggressive behaviour in short term and to preserve the good doctor-patient relationship in long term. The first step and a key factor is the right psychosocial intervention; the lack of it leads usually to escalated aggression. The right verbal intervention is empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident, consequent and helpful. Meanwhile the cause should be assessed, whether the agitation is caused by a somatic condition, intoxication or primary mental disorder. This is followed by the appropriate the parenteral or oral drug therapy possibly in the form preferred by the patient.

Differential diagnosis of aphasias:

1) Individuals with expressive aphasia are able to understand speech, but they have disordered speech (with great effort they might produce fragmented speech)

2) In receptive aphasia the disordered understanding of speech dominates (the person does not understand his own or other's speech)

3) In conduction aphasia spontaneous speech is intact, but the patient is unable to repeat sentences

4) Transcortical aphasia disables spontaneous speech, but they have an urge to repeat speech (echolalia)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) Individuals with expressive aphasia are able to understand speech, but they have disordered speech (with great effort they might produce fragmented speech)

2) In receptive aphasia the disordered understanding of speech dominates (the person does not understand his own or other's speech)

3) In conduction aphasia spontaneous speech is intact, but the patient is unable to repeat sentences

4) Transcortical aphasia disables spontaneous speech, but they have an urge to repeat speech (echolalia)

EXPLANATION

Individuals with expressive aphasia are able to understand speech, but they have disordered speech because of the motoric disorder. In receptive aphasia the disordered understanding of speech dominates. In conduction aphasia spontaneous speech is intact, but the patient is unable to repeat sentences. Transcortical aphasia disables spontaneous speech, but they have echolalia.

A 39-year-old male patient complains about diffuse anxiety, disordered attention and thinking at his family doctor. He perceives his environment to be alien. Sometimes he has strange thoughts against which he has to fight. He feels as if everything changed around him. Hearing all this, what would you do first?

A) immediately, without other examinations assign him to a psychiatric ward or outpatient unit

B) comfort him that he is not crazy

C) detailed exploration in order to identify what intervention is needed

D) ask about his childhood

E) prescribe anxiolitics and put him on sick-leave

C) detailed exploration in order to identify what intervention is needed

EXPLANATION

The listed complaints and symptoms (anxiety, reduced ability to concentrate, depersonalization, derealization experiences, pathological thought content) are likely to indicate the onset of psychosis, so detailed exploration is very important.

A 27-year-old female is referred to the outpatient unit with breathing difficulty, dizziness and numb limbs without any organic reasons. What do you think her diagnosis is?

A) situative reaction

B) somatization

C) psychosis

D) panic attack

E) posttraumatic stress disorder

D) panic attack

EXPLANATION

Shortness of breath with dizziness and numb limbs indicates hyperventilation syndrome which can be the part of a panic attack.

Alcohol intoxication:

1) is a poisoning and has to be treated like other cases of poisoning

2) might cause several somatic syndromes, therefore it is potentially life-threatening

3) measuring blood alcohol concentration is an objective indicator in defining the intensity of treatment

4) addictology is part of psychiatry and it deals with the treatment of psychoactive substance dependencies and abuses involving sober patients, who accept and cooperate with the proposed treatment

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) is a poisoning and has to be treated like other cases of poisoning

2) might cause several somatic syndromes, therefore it is potentially life-threatening

3) measuring blood alcohol concentration is an objective indicator in defining the intensity of treatment

4) addictology is part of psychiatry and it deals with the treatment of psychoactive substance dependencies and abuses involving sober patients, who accept and cooperate with the proposed treatment

EXPLANATION

Alcohol intoxication is a poisoning, it might cause several somatic syndromes, and therefore it is potentially life-threatening and has to be treated like other cases of poisoning. Detoxication is not the competency of addictology, because this profession is engaged in the voluntary treatment of sober patients with psychoactive substance dependence or abuse.

EEG spectrum:

1) delta band is of 0.5-3.5 Hz, it is predominant in deep sleep

2) alpha band of 8-12 Hz, this is the baseline rhythm in adults

3) theta band is of 4.0-7.5 Hz, it is predominant in REM sleep

4) gamma band is above 35 Hz and it indicates neuronal synchronization

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) delta band is of 0.5-3.5 Hz, it is predominant in deep sleep

2) alpha band of 8-12 Hz, this is the baseline rhythm in adults

3) theta band is of 4.0-7.5 Hz, it is predominant in REM sleep

4) gamma band is above 35 Hz and it indicates neuronal synchronization

Brain imaging methods:

1) SPECT and PET are transmission methods, they use external ray

2) MRI is based on magnetic resonance

3) CT is a particle emission method

4) SPECT and PET use isotopes bound to active signal molecules

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

2) MRI is based on magnetic resonance

4) SPECT and PET use isotopes bound to active signal molecules

EXPLANATION

SPECT and PET are emission methods and the isotopes are bound to active signal molecules, CT is a transmission method, MRI is based on magnetic resonance.

The most common applications of PET are:

1) examination of brain metabolisms

2) blood flow measurement

3) examination of enzyme activity and concentration

4) marking neurotransmitters and receptors

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) examination of brain metabolisms

2) blood flow measurement

3) examination of enzyme activity and concentration

4) marking neurotransmitters and receptors

Which is/are true for MRI?

1) white and gray matter are well distinguishable

2) a high-frequency radio transmitter allocates energy into the nuclei of the body placed into the static magnetic field

3) the radiation coming from the relaxing nuclei is detected by a radio receiver

4) it is based on the proton magnetization transfer effect of the transmission ionizing radiation

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) white and gray matter are well distinguishable

2) a high-frequency radio transmitter allocates energy into the nuclei of the body placed into the static magnetic field

3) the radiation coming from the relaxing nuclei is detected by a radio receiver

EXPLANATION

MRI does not use transmission radiation, the others are true

Transcranial stimulation

1) Transcranial stimulation (TMS) is a non-invasive form of brain stimulation.

2) In TMS, a changing magnetic field excites an electric current in specific brain areas through electromagnetic induction.

3) The therapeutic employment of TMS is currently most accepted in depression.

4) The rTMS (repetitive TMS) causes changes in the brain that last for a short time after stimulation.

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) Transcranial stimulation (TMS) is a non-invasive form of brain stimulation.

2) In TMS, a changing magnetic field excites an electric current in specific brain areas through electromagnetic induction.

3) The therapeutic employment of TMS is currently most accepted in depression.

4) The rTMS (repetitive TMS) causes changes in the brain that last for a short time after stimulation.

The sign(s) of a neuroleptic malignant syndrome during antipsychotic medication is/are:

1) progrediating disorientation + akinesia and stiffness of muscles

2) fever, hyperpyrexia + vegetative instability (instable blood pressure, tachycardia, excessive sweating, salivation)

3) increased CPK

4) leucocytosis, increased depression, high liver enzyme rates

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) progrediating disorientation + akinesia and stiffness of muscles

2) fever, hyperpyrexia + vegetative instability (instable blood pressure, tachycardia, excessive sweating, salivation)

3) increased CPK

4) leucocytosis, increased depression, high liver enzyme rates

When treating a patient with Leponex (clozapine):

1) blood tests should be run according to the guidelines

2) if the white blood cell count decreases under 3.000/mm³ (or neutrophil granulocytes decrease below 1.500/mm³) Leponex treatment has to be ceased and a consultation with a haematologist is advisable

3) regular qualitative blood tests and the control of blood sugar, cholesterol and triglyceride levels are necessary

4) if the white blood cell count increases over 10.000/mm3 (or neutrophil granulocytes exceed 5.000/mm³) Leponex treatment has to be ceased and consultation with a haematologist is advisable

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) blood tests should be run according to the guidelines

2) if the white blood cell count decreases under 3.000/mm³ (or neutrophil granulocytes decrease below 1.500/mm³) Leponex treatment has to be ceased and a consultation with a haematologist is advisable

3) regular qualitative blood tests and the control of blood sugar, cholesterol and triglyceride levels are necessary

EXPLANATION

Leponex treatment sometimes causes neutropenia; therefore, we aim to prevent this with regular blood tests. In this case, the medication has to be ceased, but not when the white blood cell count increases. Due to the possible metabolic side-effects regular blood sugar, cholesterol and triglyceride level control along with weight and waist circumference measurement is useful.

Acute alcohol intoxication:

1) acut organic psychosyndrom following alcohol consumption

2) a neurological examination is essential during the examination

3) laboratory test is important during the examination

4) its severity is roughly proportional to the blood alcohol level

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) acut organic psychosyndrom following alcohol consumption

2) a neurological examination is essential during the examination

3) laboratory test is important during the examination

4) its severity is roughly proportional to the blood alcohol level

EXPLANATION

Alcohol intoxication is an acute organic psychosyndrome associated with maladaptive behavioral changes and characteristic neurological symptoms. In more severe cases, coma, respiratory depression, or even death may occur. During care, it is important to monitor the patient's vital and laboratory parameters, as well as the somatic and neurological examination.

Intelligence measurement helps to define:

1) the level of intelligence

2) the level of specific intelligence components, which is the intelligence structure

3) whether the measured level and structure are appropriate compared to the age and education, or whether there a deficit is present

4) whether the features of the measured deficit is characteristic for a clinical disorder

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) the level of intelligence

2) the level of specific intelligence components, which is the intelligence structure

3) whether the measured level and structure are appropriate compared to the age and education, or whether there a deficit is present

4) whether the features of the measured deficit is characteristic for a clinical disorder

EXPLANATION

it measures the global level of intelligence, its structure, these are compared to standard values according to age and education and the deficits might be typical for clinical disorders

What are the characteristics of standardized intelligence tests?

1) individuals are compared to their own groups

2) culture influences performance

3) the measure of the intelligence is called the intelligence quotient

4) its distribution follows a normal distribution

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) individuals are compared to their own groups

2) culture influences performance

3) the measure of the intelligence is called the intelligence quotient

4) its distribution follows a normal distribution

EXPLANATION

In standardized intelligence tests, the individual is compared to the performance of his group and is expressed by the intelligence quotient. The average IQ = 100, its distribution follows a normal distribution. An individual's performance is influenced by culture.

WAIS-IV:

1) is the abbreviation of the latest Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

2) has two main factors: verbal and performance IQ

3) it is taken in a strictly structured, fixed order, the tasks within each subtest become progressively more difficult

4) it is a personality test

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) is the abbreviation of the latest Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

2) has two main factors: verbal and performance IQ

3) it is taken in a strictly structured, fixed order, the tasks within each subtest become progressively more difficult

EXPLANATION

As the Hungarian version of the Wechsler test, it consists of 10 subtests, which must be taken in a fixed order and the tasks become progressively more difficult within the tests. Four-factor structure (verbal, performance, working memory and processing speed indices), performance and non-personality test.

Which is/are (a) personality test(s)?

1) Rorschach probe

2) BPRS

3) MMPI

4) Raven matrices

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

1) Rorschach probe

3) MMPI

EXPLANATIONR

orschach probe is a projective test, MMPI is a personality inventory, BPRS is a clinical rating scale, and Raven matrices measure intellectual performance

Which is/are projective test?

1) WAIS

2) MMPI (Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory

3) Raven matrices

4) Rorschach probe

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

4) Rorschach probe

EXPLANATION

A Rorschach probe a projective testing method, because it is indirect, the responder unconsciously projects his inner feelings and patterns into his answers. The test is scored, and then evaluated based on standardized scales.

Dementias might be assessed with:

1) WAIS for the assessment of the level of cognitive deficit

2) Clock Drawing Test, which is an early screening test

3) MMSE, which is a complex test for the assessment of the severity of the syndrome

4) Szondi probe for the assessment of personality changes

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) WAIS for the assessment of the level of cognitive deficit

2) Clock Drawing Test, which is an early screening test

3) MMSE, which is a complex test for the assessment of the severity of the syndrome

EXPLANATION

Szondi test is a projective personality test and it is not appropriate for assessing dementias, MMSE and the Clock Drawing Test are dementia screening tools, the WAIS signals the level of cognitive decline

Clock Drawing Test:

1) the arrangement of the numbers is important in its scoring

2) is a screening test for severe cognitive deficit

3) the arrangement of the arms is important in its scoring

4) is the test on which the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is based

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

1) the arrangement of the numbers is important in its scoring

3) the arrangement of the arms is important in its scoring

EXPLANATION

it is an early screening method, but it is not a diagnostic tool. It is scored based on the arrangement of numbers and arms.

Mini Mental State Examination

1) is a widespread dementia screening test.

2) assesses orientation, attention and memory.

3) includes writing, reading and counting.

4) includes the observation of the understanding and implementing of complex instructions.

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) is a widespread dementia screening test.

2) assesses orientation, attention and memory.

3) includes writing, reading and counting.

4) includes the observation of the understanding and implementing of complex instructions.

EXPLANATION

it is a widespread dementia screening test, its main questions consider orientation, attention, memory, writing, reading and counting skills, and the understanding and implementing of complex instructions

Questionnaires for the assessment of the severity of depressive symptoms are:

1) Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)

2) Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale (MADRS)

3) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

4) Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

1) Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)

2) Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale (MADRS)

3) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

EXPLANATION

HAM-D and MADRS are depression rating scales filled in by the examiner, BDI is a self-rating depression scale and PANSS serves for the assessment of the positive, negative and global symptoms of schizophrenia

Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)

1) measures the severity of depression.

2) has diagnostic purposes.

3) is suitable to follow-up status.

4) is a self-rating scale.

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

1) measures the severity of depression.

3) is suitable to follow-up status.

EXPLANATION

HAM-D is a depression rating scales filled in by the examiner, it is not a diagnostic tool, and it measures the severity of the symptoms which makes it suitable for follow-up

Yale-Brown Obsessive-Compulsive Scale (YBOCS)

1) is for the diagnostics of OCD

2) assess the severity of OCD

3) is a self-rating scale

4) is suitable to follow-up the severity of obsessive-compulsive symptoms

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

2) assess the severity of OCD

4) is suitable to follow-up the severity of obsessive-compulsive symptoms

EXPLANATION

YBOCS is an examiner-rated scale for OCD, it is not a diagnostic tool, and it measures the severity of the symptoms which makes it suitable for follow-up

Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)

1) assesses the severity of schizophrenia

2) is not suitable for the diagnosis of schizophrenia

3) is suitable to follow-up the severity of the symptoms of schizophrenia

4) is a semi-structured interview filled in by the doctor

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) assesses the severity of schizophrenia

2) is not suitable for the diagnosis of schizophrenia

3) is suitable to follow-up the severity of the symptoms of schizophrenia

4) is a semi-structured interview filled in by the doctor

EXPLANATION

PANSS serves for the assessment of the positive, negative and global symptoms of schizophrenia, the examiner scores it based on a semi-structured interview, it is not a diagnostic tool, and it measures the severity of the symptoms which makes it suitable for follow-up

Modern psychiatric classification systems aim to ...

1) define mental disorders through explicit and operationalized criteria

2) enable the scientific investigation of mental disorders

3) reliably diagnose mental disorders

4) enable the applicability of mental disorders for educational, research and statistical purposes

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

E) all of the answers are correct

1) define mental disorders through explicit and operationalized criteria

2) enable the scientific investigation of mental disorders

3) reliably diagnose mental disorders

4) enable the applicability of mental disorders for educational, research and statistical purposes

Which are the currently used classification systems?

1) DSM-I

2) DSM-5

3) ICD-8

4) ICD-11

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

2) DSM-5

4) ICD-11

EXPLANATION

ICD-11 from 2022 and DSM-5 from 2013 are currently in use.

Which is/are NOT in the group of anxiety disorders neither in ICD nor in DSM?

1) panic disorder

2) agoraphobia

3) generalized anxiety disorder

4) somatic symptom disorder

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

E) all of the answers are correct

D) only the 4th answer is correct

4) somatic symptom disorder

EXPLANATION

The somatic symptom disorder belongs to the somatoform disorders.