Drug Therapy for Hypertension – NUR 203 Review

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These flashcards review key concepts from the NUR 203 lecture on blood pressure regulation, antihypertensive drug classes, side effects, patient education, lifestyle modifications, and current guideline recommendations.

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50 Terms

1
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What two factors determine systolic blood pressure?

Cardiac output, which equals heart rate (HR) × stroke volume (SV).

2
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What primarily determines diastolic blood pressure?

Peripheral vascular resistance (PVR).

3
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According to the American Heart Association, what blood pressure range is considered NORMAL?

Systolic < 120 mm Hg and diastolic < 80 mm Hg.

4
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What systolic and/or diastolic pressures define a HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS?

Systolic > 180 mm Hg and/or diastolic > 120 mm Hg.

5
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Define a hypertension emergency in terms of diastolic pressure.

Diastolic pressure greater than 120 mm Hg with evidence of organ damage.

6
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Name four clinical conditions that can precipitate a hypertensive emergency.

Renal disease, eclampsia, cerebral hemorrhage, dissecting aortic aneurysm, or pheochromocytoma.

7
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List at least four lifestyle factors that contribute to primary hypertension.

Obesity, excessive alcohol intake, smoking, stress, sedentary lifestyle, and high-salt diet.

8
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In response to hypotension, what happens to heart rate and blood vessel caliber?

Heart rate increases and vessels constrict to raise cardiac output and BP.

9
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Which hormone system is activated by decreased renal perfusion pressure?

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS).

10
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What enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) from the lungs.

11
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List three major physiologic actions of angiotensin II.

Potent vasoconstriction, stimulation of aldosterone release, and direct increase in blood pressure.

12
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What is the overall effect of aldosterone on the kidney?

Increased reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to higher blood volume.

13
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Name four broad drug classes used to treat hypertension.

ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), calcium channel blockers (CCBs), and diuretics (among others).

14
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How can you easily recognize ACE inhibitor drug names?

They typically end in “-pril” (e.g., lisinopril).

15
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State the primary mechanism of ACE inhibitors.

They prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, resulting in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone.

16
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List three common adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.

Hypotension, persistent dry cough, and hyperkalemia (angioedema is rare but serious).

17
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Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?

They are teratogenic and can harm fetal renal development.

18
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Give two key patient-teaching points for someone starting an ACE inhibitor.

Monitor blood pressure daily and report persistent cough or signs of hyperkalemia; avoid taking the drug with meals (for captopril).

19
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How can you identify angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) by name?

They end in “-sartan” (e.g., losartan).

20
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What is the mechanism of ARBs?

They block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and reducing systemic vascular resistance.

21
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Which two patient groups often receive ARBs for renal protection?

Patients with hypertension and diabetic nephropathy.

22
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State two common side effects of ARBs.

Dizziness and muscle cramps/weakness (others include diarrhea and angioedema).

23
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What dietary restriction should be reinforced with both ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

Avoid potassium-rich salt substitutes due to risk of hyperkalemia.

24
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Give two teaching points for patients on ARBs.

Monitor BP daily; stop the medication and contact the provider if pregnancy occurs.

25
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Name four commonly used calcium channel blockers.

Amlodipine, diltiazem, verapamil, and nicardipine.

26
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What is the primary action of calcium channel blockers on blood vessels?

They inhibit calcium influx in smooth muscle, causing relaxation and vasodilation.

27
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Which beverage should be avoided while on many calcium channel blockers and why?

Grapefruit juice; it inhibits CYP3A4 metabolism and can raise drug levels.

28
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What is the only currently available direct renin inhibitor and its brand name?

Aliskiren (Tekturna).

29
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Why should aliskiren not be taken with a high-fat meal?

High fat decreases its absorption and efficacy.

30
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Name three main categories of diuretics used for hypertension.

Thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics, and potassium-sparing diuretics.

31
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Which diuretic class is considered first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension?

Thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide).

32
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Which patient populations often respond best to thiazide diuretics?

Older adults and African-American patients.

33
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Name a potent loop diuretic frequently used in heart failure.

Furosemide (Lasix).

34
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Give two examples of vasodilator drugs used in hypertensive emergencies.

Hydralazine and sodium nitroprusside.

35
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What serious autoimmune-like adverse effect can hydralazine cause?

Drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

36
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Which alpha1-adrenergic blocker is commonly prescribed for both hypertension and BPH?

Tamsulosin (Flomax) or doxazosin (Cardura).

37
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State a hallmark side effect of alpha1-blockers that requires patient safety teaching.

Orthostatic hypotension with dizziness or syncope.

38
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What central alpha2-agonist is used for hypertension and ADHD?

Clonidine (Catapres).

39
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Why must clonidine not be stopped abruptly?

Abrupt withdrawal can cause rebound hypertension.

40
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How can you recognize beta-adrenergic blocker drug names?

They end in “-olol” (e.g., metoprolol).

41
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What are two common cardiovascular effects of beta-blockers?

Decreased heart rate and decreased myocardial contractility, lowering cardiac output.

42
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Why should non-cardioselective beta-blockers be used cautiously in asthmatic patients?

They can cause bronchoconstriction by blocking beta2 receptors in the lungs.

43
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What combined alpha-beta blocker is often used in heart failure management?

Carvedilol (Coreg) or labetalol for hypertension.

44
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List three common reasons for poor antihypertensive medication compliance.

Lack of symptoms, side effects that make patients feel worse, and medication cost or complexity.

45
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What eating plan is recommended to lower blood pressure through diet?

The DASH diet (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension).

46
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Name three core components of the DASH diet.

High intake of fruits and vegetables; limited sodium; emphasis on whole grains, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy.

47
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According to JNC 8, what is the BP goal for adults aged 60 years or older without diabetes or CKD?

< 150/90 mm Hg.
48
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State the first-line drug options recommended by JNC 8 for non-black adults without CKD.

ACE inhibitor, ARB, thiazide diuretic, or calcium channel blocker.

49
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What is the nurse’s primary role in managing a patient with hypertension?

Educate on lifestyle changes, monitor BP, promote medication adherence, and assess for complications.

50
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List two potential target-organ damages caused by uncontrolled hypertension.

Stroke (cerebrovascular accident) and chronic kidney disease (others include heart failure and retinopathy).