Blood Donor Screening-Lec

What is the purpose of donor screening in phlebotomy?

Answer: To protect donor health, ensure recipient safety, maintain blood supply quality, and minimize unnecessary deferrals. Explanation: Screening identifies healthy, low-risk donors to prevent adverse effects, transfusion-transmitted infections (TTIs), and resource wastage while ensuring fair processes.

What is the minimum hemoglobin level required for allogenic blood donation?

Answer: ≥12.5 g/dL. Explanation: This threshold ensures donors have sufficient red blood cells to donate safely without risking anemia, aligning with WHO guidelines.

What antiseptics are used to clean the venipuncture site before blood collection?

Answer: Povidone iodine and 70% isopropyl alcohol. Explanation: These antiseptics disinfect the site to minimize infection risk during needle insertion, following standard sterile protocols.

What is the acceptable pulse rate range for a donor during physical examination?

Answer: 50–100 beats per minute. Explanation: A regular pulse within this range indicates cardiovascular health, confirming the donor’s suitability for donation.

What does it mean if a blood drop floats in the copper sulfate hemoglobin test?

Answer: Hemoglobin <12.5 g/dL. Explanation: A floating drop indicates insufficient hemoglobin, leading to deferral to protect the donor from health risks like anemia.

What are the key components of the donor registration process?

Answer: Identity verification, registration form, informed consent, and donor educational materials. Explanation: These steps ensure accurate donor identification, informed agreement, and awareness of eligibility criteria to promote safety and self-deferral if needed.

What is the maximum body temperature allowed for a donor to be eligible?

Answer: ≤37.5°C (99.5°F). Explanation: A temperature above 37.5°C suggests fever, indicating the donor is unwell and must be deferred for safety.

What materials are required for the blood typing test in donor screening?

Answer: Blood lancet, cotton, 70% isopropyl alcohol, glass slides, applicator stick, typing sera (Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-D), labeling materials. Explanation: These are used to collect a blood sample and test for agglutination to determine the donor’s blood type (A, B, AB, O; Rh factor).

What are the weight requirements for donating 350 mL and 450 mL of blood?

Answer: ≥50 kg for 350 mL; ≥55 kg for 450 mL. Explanation: These ensure blood volume loss is ≤13%, preventing adverse effects like vasovagal episodes or anemia.

What are the three types of deferral categories for blood donors?

Answer: Temporary, indefinite, and permanent. Explanation: Temporary deferrals are for limited periods (e.g., recent tattoo), indefinite for unspecified periods (e.g., hepatitis history), and permanent for serious conditions (e.g., HIV), ensuring safety.

What bloodborne diseases are screened during donor selection?

Answer: Malaria, syphilis, HIV, hepatitis B, and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). Explanation: These diseases are screened to prevent TTIs, protecting recipients from infections that could be transmitted via transfusion.

What is the purpose of the donor questionnaire in medical history screening?

Answer: To collect demographic, medical, and risk history to assess donor suitability. Explanation: Standardized yes/no questions identify health or risk factors that may disqualify donors, ensuring safe blood collection.

What are the acceptable blood pressure ranges for a donor?

Answer: Systolic ≤180 mmHg; diastolic ≤100 mmHg. Explanation: These ranges ensure the donor’s cardiovascular stability, reducing risks during donation.

What are the four types of blood donations mentioned in the reviewer?

Answer: Allogenic, autologous, directed, and apheresis. Explanation: Allogenic is for general use, autologous for the donor’s own use, directed for specific recipients, and apheresis collects specific components, each serving distinct purposes.

What is the minimum hematocrit level required for blood donation?

Answer: ≥38%. Explanation: This ensures sufficient red blood cell volume for safe donation, measured via microhematocrit centrifuge to confirm eligibility.

What is the specific gravity of the copper sulfate solution used in hemoglobin testing?

Answer: 1.053. Explanation: This specific gravity corresponds to a hemoglobin level of 12.5 g/dL, used to determine donor eligibility by observing if a blood drop sinks or floats.

What is the purpose of using a tourniquet during blood collection?

Answer: To locate and distend the vein for easier needle insertion. Explanation: The tourniquet increases venous pressure, making veins more visible and accessible for safe venipuncture.

What is the acceptable systolic blood pressure range for a donor?

Answer: ≤180 mmHg (ideally 100–140 mmHg). Explanation: This range ensures cardiovascular stability, reducing risks like hypertension-related complications during donation.

What is the purpose of donor educational materials in the registration process?

Answer: To inform donors about eligibility criteria and encourage self-deferral. Explanation: Materials help donors understand health and risk factors, promoting voluntary withdrawal if unsuitable.

What is the minimum hematocrit range required for blood donation?

Answer: ≥38% (range 38–41%). Explanation: This ensures sufficient red blood cell volume for safe donation, verified using the microhematocrit method.

What is the role of povidone iodine in blood collection?

Answer: To disinfect the venipuncture site. Explanation: Povidone iodine, along with 70% isopropyl alcohol, sterilizes the skin to prevent infection during needle insertion.

What is the acceptable diastolic blood pressure range for a donor?

Answer: ≤100 mmHg (ideally 60–90 mmHg). Explanation: This range confirms cardiovascular health, ensuring the donor can safely tolerate blood donation.

What is the purpose of the squeeze ball during blood collection?

Answer: To maintain blood flow into the collection bag. Explanation: The donor squeezes the ball to promote venous return, ensuring efficient and complete collection.

What is the typical expiration period for red blood cells in anticoagulant?

Answer: 35–42 days. Explanation: Proper storage at 1–6°C ensures red blood cells remain viable for transfusion within this timeframe.

What is the purpose of serological testing after blood collection?

Answer: To screen for transfusion-transmitted infections (TTIs). Explanation: Tests for HIV, hepatitis B/C, syphilis, and others ensure the blood is safe for recipients.

What is the minimum age typically required for allogenic blood donation?

Answer: 17 years (16 with parental consent in some regions). Explanation: This age ensures physical maturity for safe donation, with variations by local regulations.

What equipment is used to measure a donor’s weight during physical examination?

Answer: Weighing scale. Explanation: The scale confirms the donor meets weight requirements (≥50 kg for 350 mL, ≥55 kg for 450 mL) to prevent excessive blood volume loss.

What is the purpose of sealing the blood bag after collection?

Answer: To prevent contamination and ensure accurate labeling. Explanation: Sealing maintains sterility and links the bag to the donor’s records, avoiding mix-ups.

What is the acceptable condition of the venipuncture site during physical examination?

Answer: Clean, free of lesions, scars, or signs of intravenous drug use. Explanation: This ensures a safe and sterile site for needle insertion, reducing infection risk.

What is the role of the spring scale in blood collection?

Answer: To monitor the volume of blood collected. Explanation: The scale ensures the correct amount (350–450 mL) is collected, preventing over- or under-collection.

What are the key vital signs checked during a donor’s physical examination?

Answer: Pulse, body temperature, and blood pressure. Explanation: These indicators (pulse 50–100 bpm, temperature ≤37.5°C, BP ≤180/100 mmHg) confirm the donor’s health for safe donation.

What is the purpose of the microhematocrit centrifuge in hematocrit determination?

Answer: To separate red blood cells from plasma for measurement. Explanation: Centrifuging a capillary tube allows precise measurement of red blood cell percentage (≥38%) using a reader.

What is the purpose of informed consent in donor registration?

Answer: To obtain voluntary agreement for donation and testing. Explanation: Donors are informed of procedures, risks, and blood use, ensuring ethical and transparent consent.

What are the four key purposes of donor screening outlined in the reviewer?

Answer: Protect donor health, ensure recipient safety, maintain blood supply quality, minimize unnecessary deferrals. Explanation: These goals ensure safe, efficient, and ethical blood collection practices.

What is the typical post-donation rest period recommended for donors?

Answer: 10–15 minutes. Explanation: Resting helps stabilize the donor’s blood pressure and prevents dizziness or fainting after blood loss.

How is the copper sulfate method performed to determine hemoglobin levels?

Answer: A fingertip is cleaned with 70% isopropyl alcohol, pricked with a lancet, and a blood drop is placed in copper sulfate solution (specific gravity 1.053); sinking indicates ≥12.5 g/dL, floating indicates <12.5 g/dL. Explanation: This process assesses hemoglobin to ensure safe donation, with the solution’s density determining if the blood meets the eligibility threshold.

How is the venipuncture site prepared for blood collection?

Answer: The site is cleaned with 70% isopropyl alcohol followed by povidone iodine, then allowed to dry. Explanation: This sterilization process removes surface bacteria, minimizing infection risk during needle insertion.

How is the hematocrit level determined using the Adam’s Microhematocrit Method?

Answer: A fingertip is pricked, blood is drawn into a heparinized capillary tube, sealed with clay, centrifuged for 5 minutes, and the red blood cell percentage (≥38%) is measured with a reader. Explanation: Centrifugation separates red blood cells from plasma, allowing precise measurement to confirm sufficient red cell volume for donation.

How is blood typing performed during donor screening?

Answer: A fingertip is pricked, blood is placed on glass slides, mixed with Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-D sera using an applicator stick, and agglutination is observed to determine blood type. Explanation: Agglutination patterns identify the donor’s blood type (A, B, AB, O; Rh factor), ensuring compatibility for transfusion.

How is informed consent obtained during donor registration?

Answer: Donors are informed about the donation procedure, risks, TTI testing, and blood use, then sign a consent form to agree voluntarily. Explanation: This process ensures donors understand and consent to the procedure ethically, protecting their rights and safety.

How is the donor questionnaire administered during medical history screening?

Answer: A trained historian asks standardized yes/no questions in a confidential area, or the donor self-completes the form, covering health, medications, and risk factors. Explanation: This systematic process collects critical data to identify unsuitable donors, ensuring blood safety.

How is the pulse rate checked during the physical examination?

Answer: A trained staff member uses a timer to count the donor’s pulse for 60 seconds, ensuring it is 50–100 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. Explanation: This process confirms cardiovascular health, indicating the donor can safely tolerate blood loss.

How is the blood collection volume monitored during donation?

Answer: A spring scale is used to weigh the blood bag, ensuring 350–450 mL is collected based on donor weight. Explanation: The scale prevents over- or under-collection, maintaining donor safety and blood unit quality.

How is the donor’s body temperature measured during physical examination?

Answer: A thermometer is used to check the donor’s temperature, which must be ≤37.5°C (99.5°F). Explanation: This process identifies fever, deferring unwell donors to prevent health risks during donation.

How is the blood bag labeled after collection?

Answer: The bag is sealed and labeled with the donor’s ID number, blood type, collection date/time, and expiration date (35–42 days). Explanation: Accurate labeling ensures traceability and compliance with storage regulations, preventing errors in transfusion.

What are the four key purposes of donor screening in phlebotomy?

Answer: Protect donor health, ensure recipient safety, maintain blood supply quality, minimize unnecessary deferrals. Explanation: These purposes guide the screening process to ensure safe blood collection, protect health, and optimize resources.

What are the three types of deferral categories for blood donors?

Answer: Temporary, indefinite, permanent. Explanation: Temporary deferrals apply for limited periods (e.g., tattoos), indefinite for unspecified periods (e.g., hepatitis history), and permanent for serious conditions (e.g., HIV), ensuring safety.

What are the five bloodborne diseases screened during donor selection?

Answer: Malaria, syphilis, HIV, hepatitis B, variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). Explanation: Screening for these diseases prevents transfusion-transmitted infections, safeguarding recipients.

What are the four types of blood donations mentioned in the reviewer?

Answer: Allogenic, autologous, directed, apheresis. Explanation: Allogenic is for general use, autologous for the donor’s own use, directed for specific recipients, and apheresis collects specific components, each with unique purposes.

What are the three vital signs checked during a donor’s physical examination?

Answer: Pulse, body temperature, blood pressure. Explanation: These indicators (pulse 50–100 bpm, temperature ≤37.5°C, BP ≤180/100 mmHg) assess donor health to ensure safe donation.

What are the four identification documents acceptable for donor registration?

Answer: Driver’s license, passport, school identification card, any valid government-issued ID. Explanation: These documents verify donor identity, ensuring accurate records and traceability.

What are the six materials used for the blood typing test in donor screening?

Answer: Blood lancet, cotton, 70% isopropyl alcohol, glass slides, applicator stick, typing sera (Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-D). Explanation: These materials enable blood sample collection and agglutination testing to determine blood type (A, B, AB, O; Rh factor).

What are the three key components of the donor registration process?

Answer: Identity verification, registration form, informed consent. Explanation: These steps ensure accurate donor identification, data collection, and ethical agreement for donation.

What are the five key questions asked in the donor medical history questionnaire?

Answer: General health (feeling healthy?), medications, sexual activities, medical history (diseases), travel history. Explanation: These questions identify health or risk factors that may disqualify donors, ensuring blood safety.

What are the four materials used for hemoglobin determination via the copper sulfate method?

Answer: Blood lancet, cotton, 70% isopropyl alcohol, copper sulfate solution (specific gravity 1.053). Explanation: These materials facilitate a finger-prick blood test to check hemoglobin levels (≥12.5 g/dL) for donor eligibility.

What is malaria in the context of bloodborne disease screening?

Answer: A parasitic infection caused by Plasmodium, transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes, causing fever, anemia, and splenomegaly. Explanation: Screening for malaria prevents its transmission through blood transfusion, as it can infect recipients.

What is syphilis as a bloodborne disease screened in donors?

Answer: A sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum, which may be acute or chronic with varied symptoms. Explanation: Syphilis screening ensures donated blood is free from this bacterium, protecting recipients from infection.

What is HIV in the context of blood donor screening?

Answer: A lentivirus that causes AIDS by depleting CD4+ lymphocytes, leading to opportunistic infections. Explanation: HIV screening is critical to prevent transfusion-transmitted infections, as it severely impacts the immune system.

What is hepatitis B in blood donor screening?

Answer: A viral infection causing liver inflammation, potentially leading to chronic conditions like liver failure or hepatocellular carcinoma. Explanation: Screening for hepatitis B ensures blood safety, as it can be transmitted via transfusion.

What is variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in donor screening?

Answer: A prion disease linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy, transmitted through contaminated food supply. Explanation: vCJD screening prevents transfusion transmission of this fatal neurodegenerative disease.

What is a temporary deferral in blood donation?

Answer: A time-limited ineligibility for donating blood due to specific conditions. Explanation: Conditions like recent travel to malaria-risk areas or pregnancy require temporary deferral to ensure donor and recipient safety.

What is an indefinite deferral in the context of blood donation?

Answer: An unspecified period of ineligibility due to regulatory requirements. Explanation: Conditions like a history of hepatitis after age 11 lead to indefinite deferral to mitigate potential risks.

What is a permanent deferral for blood donors?

Answer: Permanent ineligibility to donate blood due to serious health conditions or behaviors. Explanation: Conditions like confirmed HIV or high-risk behaviors like intravenous drug use pose lifelong risks, requiring permanent deferral.

What is the AABB Donor History Questionnaire in donor screening?

Answer: A standardized tool for collecting a donor’s demographic, medical, and risk history. Explanation: This questionnaire ensures consistent data collection to assess donor suitability, enhancing blood safety.

What is the NIH Blood Donor Educational Material?

Answer: A resource informing donors about eligibility criteria and the donation process. Explanation: It helps donors understand health and risk factors, encouraging self-deferral if ineligible.

What is an allogenic donation in blood banking?

Answer: Blood donated for general use by any compatible recipient. Explanation: Allogenic donations supply blood banks for widespread transfusion needs, ensuring availability for patients.

What is an autologous donation in blood donation?

Answer: Blood donated for the donor’s own future use, such as for elective surgery. Explanation: Autologous donation reduces transfusion risks by using the donor’s own blood.

What is a directed donation in the context of blood donation?

Answer: Blood donated for a specific recipient, requiring medical justification. Explanation: Directed donations ensure blood is reserved for a designated patient, often for rare compatibility needs.

What is apheresis in blood donation?

Answer: A process collecting specific blood components like platelets or plasma, returning other components to the donor. Explanation: Apheresis optimizes component-specific transfusions, enhancing treatment efficiency.

What is a transfusion-transmitted infection (TTI) in blood screening?

Answer: An infection transmitted to a recipient through donated blood. Explanation: Screening for TTIs like HIV or hepatitis B prevents these diseases from spreading via transfusion, ensuring recipient safety.