Chemo cumulative midterm exam

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106 Terms

1
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How does UV light cause cancer?

Pyrimidines dimers are formed in DNA causing mutations

2
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What are proto-oncogenes?

Like Thanos, requiring all the power to cause harm

3
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What are tumor suppressor genes?

Guardians of the genome

4
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What are the 8 hallmarks of cancer talked about in depth in class?

  • Sustaining proliferative signaling

  • Evading growth suppressors

  • Resisting cell death

  • Enabling replicative immortality

  • Inducing angiogenesis

  • Activating invasion and metastasis

  • Deregulating cellular energetics

  • Avoiding immune destruction

5
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What is the major enzyme involved in apoptosis?

Caspase

6
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Apoptotic cell death can be induced by?

  • P53 signaling

  • Signaling from surface cell death receptors

  • Extra/intra cellular stresses

7
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What is the process of new blood vessels called?

Angiogenesis

8
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Which of the following is most likely true of aggressively dividing cancer cells?

  • They do not express telomerase

  • They do not express hTERT

  • They are in a state of cell crisis

  • Their telomeres are stabilized (not shortening with each cellular division)

  • None of the above

Their telomeres are stabilized (not shortening with each cellular division)

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Which posttranslational modification is especially important for therapeutic antibodies?

Glycosylation

10
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What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide?

Nucleosides lack a phosphate group

11
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True or false: primary toxicities associated with capecitabine involve diarrhea and hand-foot syndrome.

True

12
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5-fluorouracil (5-FU):

  1. Inactive in its parent form; therefore 5-FU is a "prodrug".

  2. An active metabolite 5-fluor-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-monophosphate (fdUMP) binds covalently with methylenetetrahydrofolate which inhibits DNA synthesis

  3. Both

  4. Neither

Both

13
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Characteristics of newer folic acid analogues: example - Pemetrexed and Pralatrexate

  1. Inhibition of thymidylate synthase

  2. Enhanced transport into tumor cells

  3. Neither

  4. Easy digestion

Inhibition of thymidylate synthase

14
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MTX-PG display increased inhibitory effects than MTX alone? Why?

  1. Increased action on DHFR

  2. Increased TS inhibition

  3. Increased cell retention

  4. Increased transport to cell

Increased cell retention

15
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Infections associated with 6-mercaptopurine and azathioprine administration:

Fungal infections and pneumocystis pneumonia

16
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What is the primary 6-mercaptopurine toxicity?

Bone marrow depression

17
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What is the primary toxic metabolite derived from cytarabine (Ara-C)?

Ara-CTP

18
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What is the most important antimetabolite type agent used to treat AML?

Cytarabine

19
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What is the Warburg effect?

Anaerobic glycolysis in aerobic environment

Cancer cells make glucose in glycolysis under aerobic

conditions

20
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What is cytokinesis?

Division of the cytoplasm

21
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What brain region is stimulated during emesis to cause vomiting?

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

22
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Mitosis is a process of?

Nuclear division

23
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Derivative from the Western Yew and European Yew tree, this anticancer drug acts by inhibiting tubulin de-polymerization:

a. Vincristine

b. Paclitaxel

c. Methotrexate

d. Vincan Alkaloids

Paclitaxel

24
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Which one(s) of the following statements is/are correct?

A.

Taxanes are classified as microtubule stabilizing agents

B.

Both docetaxel and paclitaxel exhibit resistance to the P-glycoprotein reflux pump the activity of which results in resistant to the anti-cancer activity of these agents.

C.

Both

D.

 Neither

Both

25
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Peripheral neuropathy represents a common and dose-limiting toxicity of anti-microtubule drugs, likely due to direct action on microtubules.

  1. True

  2. False

True

26
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The chemotherapy undertaken by this patient caused acute hemorrhagic cystitis. Which drug was most likely to be responsible for this toxicity?

A.

Doxorubicin

B.

Cyclophosphamide

C.

Methotrexate

D.

Vincristine

Cyclophosphamide

27
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High expression of this enzyme confers in cancer cells resistance to nitrosoureas (Carnustine) as well as other methylating agents.

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

Thymidylate synthase

C.

Dihydrofolate reductase

D.

Alkyl guanine alkyl transferase

E.

Topoisomerase II

F.

Topoisomerase I

G.

Xanthine Oxidase

Alkyl guanine alkyl transferase

28
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Which one(s) of the following statements is/are correct?

A.

Taxanes are classified as microtubule stabilizing agents

B.

Both docetaxel and paclitaxel exhibit resistance to the P-glycoprotein reflux pump the activity of which results in resistant to the anti-cancer activity of these agents.

C.

Both

D.

 Neither

Both

29
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Major type origin of cancer?

Epithelial

30
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If a tumor’s cells have dedifferentiated (lost all tissue-specific traits), its origin cannot be readily identified; such tumors are said to be

Anaplastic

31
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Causes formation of pyrimidine dimers in the DNA leading to mutations.

UV light

32
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The characteristic tumor associated with asbestos

Malignant mesotheliom

33
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Generally ONLY TOXIC TO CELLS IN S PHASE

Antimetabolites

34
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Inhibits DHFR

Methotrexate

35
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Toxicity mirrors that of methotrexate, with the additional feature of a prominent erythematous and pruritic rash in 40% of patients.

Pemetrexed

36
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Can be taken up by cells as bases, and can be converted by the cells into (deoxy) nucleosides/nucleotides

Uracil and guanine

37
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It is the single most effective agent for induction of remission in AML disease

Cytarabine

38
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Deficiency or lack of the activating enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)

6-mercaptopurine

39
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Oral doses of 6-MP should be reduced by 75% in patients receiving the xanthine oxidase inhibitor, allopurinol.

True

40
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Binds to β-tubulin, which hinders the binding of α-tubulin to β-tubulin of microtubules

Vinca alkaloids

41
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What is choriocarcinoma?

Cancer of the placenta

42
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Transformed into SN-38 through the action of a carboxylesterase and inactivated by glucuronidation

Irinotecans

43
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Too much of doxorubicin causes what to happen?

Cardio toxicity

44
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Causes hemorrhagic cystitis often seen during therapy with cyclophosphamide

acrolein

45
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Responsible for antitumor effects

Phosphoramide mustard

46
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Counteracted by mesna (2-mercaptoethane sulfonate) and diuresis

Toxicity of cyclophosphamide

47
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The most neurotoxic of all nitrogen mustards (due to significant generation of chloroacetaldehyde

Ifosfamide: adverse effect --> hemorrhagic cystitis

48
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Used against tumors of the brain and meninges

Nitrosoureas

49
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Alkylation can be repaired by the repair enzyme O6-alkyl guanine alkytransferase (AGT)

Nitrosoureas

50
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AGT: O6-alkylguanine DNA alkyltransferase is a protein that in humans is encoded by the O6 methylguanine DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) gene.

Dacarbazine

51
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Aluminum in the needle can inactivate this drug

Cisplatin

52
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SERM therapy exerts estrogenic effect in most non-breast tissues and may lead to the risk of endometrial cancer

True

53
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Aromatase inhibitors are also known as “pure anti-estrogens”

False

54
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What are the key regulators of transition between cell cycle phases?

A.

Tyrosine Kinases (TK)

B.

Cyclin Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

C.

Caspases

D.

Serine/Threonine proteases

Cyclin Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

55
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Pegylation of Asparaginase can reduce the antigenicity of the enzyme.

True

56
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Resistance to anticancer effects of L-asparaginase may occur through tumor cell synthesis of asparagine synthatase.

True

57
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Choose the correct statement/statements concerning hydroxyurea:

A.

Classified as an antimetabolite

B.

Prevents conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides.

C.

Both

D.

Neither

Prevents conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides

58
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The enzyme which is very low or absent in all the lymphoblastic cancer cells and may lead to the inhibition of protein synthesis?

A.

Asparaginase

B.

Asparagine synthetase

C.

Ribonucleotide reductase

D.

Crisantaspase

Asparagine synthetase

59
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The inhibitory action of Letrozole on aromatase enzyme by substrate competitive mechanism

True

60
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Retinoids are classified as this type of anticancer agent.

A.

DNA polymerase inhibitor

B.

Promoter of cellular differentiation

C.

 Alkylating agent

D.

Topoisomerase inhibitor

Promoter of cellular differentiation

61
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Which of the following molecules are more likely to trigger the generation of neutralizing antibodies in a patient?

  1. Hydroxyurea

  2. Asparaginase

  3. Asparagine

  4. Nitrosoureas

Asparaginase

62
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Which Mab has the “chimeric” structure?

A.

Alemtuzumab

B.

Ipilimumab

C.

Blinatumomab

D.

Rituximab

Rituximab

63
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Cetuximab is not recommended for patients with activating KRAS or BRAF V600E mutations because

A.

The mutant KRAS could activate the Downstream pathway of MAPK without the activation of EGFR

B.

Cetuximab is not targeted to EGFR

C.

Cetuximab is a chimeric antibody

D.

Cetuximab is not approved by FDA for cancer treatment 

The mutant KRAS could activate the downstream pathway of MAPK without the activation of EGFR

64
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Which antibody inhibits HER2 receptor dependent signaling? 

A.

Rituximab

B.

Cetuximab

C.

Bevacizumab

D.

Trastuzumab

Trastuzumab

65
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Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody used in cancer therapies. Choose the most appropriate statement. 

A.

Binds to VEGF which blocks signaling from VEGF-R (Receptor)

B.

Binds to VEGF-R (receptor) which inhibits VEGF dependent signaling

C.

Interacts with the tyrosine kinase domain of VEGFR and inhibits downstream signaling

D.

Interacts with nuclear receptor and inhibits cell proliferation

Binds to VEGF which blocks signaling from VEGF-R (receptor)

66
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hyperplastic

a benign tumor that is described as being an increase in the number of cells to make a tissue or organ larger

67
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metaplastic

a benign tumor that is described as having cells that adapt or change types due to its hostile environment

68
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hypertrophy

a benign tumor that is described as being an increase in the size of individual cells to make a tissue or organ larger

69
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dysplastic

a benign tumor described as having the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue by mutation, but still somewhat differentiated

70
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what is the most important risk factor for cancer

age

71
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what is an oncogene

a cancerous gene that results in a cancer protein

72
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DNA excision repair

DNA with mutations in it are taken out and replaced by the correct sequence

73
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How do defects in DNA affect UV light mutations

the pyrimidine dimer mutations aren’t repaired

74
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what is neoplastic transformation

new progressive growth of defective cells; cancer cells turn good cells bad

75
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Proto-onco genes

genes that are prone to mutations

76
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Why are BRAF mutations bad for some drugs

they make constant signaling to EGFR internally while some drugs only target external receptors

77
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What is the guardian of the genome and what is its function

P53 induces apoptosis/repairs where need be

78
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what is the gatekeeper of the cell cycle and what is its function

retinoblastoma associated protein

tells the cell cycle to continue or stop

79
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extravasation

transit via lymph and blood followed by escape from vessels into distant parenchyma

80
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senescent

alive but non-proliferative

81
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interphase

growth phase

82
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G1

normal cell growth and function

83
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S

DNA synthesis occurs

84
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G2

checks of DNA and prepping for mitosis

85
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mitosis

splitting of the nucleus

86
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What is the target for methotrexate

folate

87
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methotrexate-PG display increased inhibitory effects than methotrexate alone. Why?

it’s stuck in the cell so it’s able to target more processes and do more damage

88
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what are dNTP’s

DNA bases basically

89
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what is the function of leucocoverin

a drug that stops the toxicity of methotrexate

90
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what is the main form of resistance for pretty much any cancer drug

efflux of the drug transporter

91
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what are the bases that can only be taken up by cells as nucleosides or nucleotides

adenine, guanine, and cytosine

92
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what is DPD

it is important for the metabolism and elimination of 5-FU

93
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capecitabine is the pro drug for what

5-FU

94
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what does Ara (cytarabine) do when it binds

activates kinase checkpoints in the cell cycle to induce apoptosis

95
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what is the drug used in combo therapy for pancreatic cancer and has a better and longer survival rate for pancreatic cancer than gemcitabine

folfirinox

96
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what drug binds to beta-tubulin but doesn’t stop it from binding to alpha tubulin, and instead just disassembles the microtubules

taxols

97
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what drug has the lowest incidence of allergic reaction

nab-paclitaxel

98
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Bevacizumab

binds to VEGF-A and blocks ligand dependent activation

prevents blood vessel proliferation

for glioblastoma patients

bleeding, high blood pressure

99
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ramucirumab

binds to VEGFR2 and blocks binding of VEGFR ligand —> inhibits ligand induced activity in endothelial cells

used in combo with chemotherapy for metastatic colorectal cancer

100
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platelet-derived growth factor receptor

important in stem cell growth

regulate cell proliferation, differentiation, cell growth, and development