Ignition and Starting + Engine Instruments

1. A magneto is best described as which of the following?

A. A device that steps up battery voltage for the spark plugs

B. A self-contained AC generator that produces its own high-voltage spark

C. A DC generator that charges the aircraft battery

D. A transformer that requires external AC power to operate

B.

2. The point in magneto rotation, expressed in degrees after full register (neutral), at which the breaker points open for maximum spark intensity is called the:

A. Lag angle

B. E-gap (efficiency gap)

C. Dwell angle

D. Advance angle

B.

3. What is the purpose of a capacitor (condenser) in a magneto primary circuit?

A. To store fuel flow data

B. To reduce arcing at the breaker points and increase the rate of primary field collapse

C. To increase engine RPM

D. To provide backup power if the magneto fails

B.

4. An impulse coupling is primarily used to:

A. Increase manifold pressure during cruise

B. Provide a retarded, high-energy spark for easier starting at low cranking speeds

C. Advance ignition timing at high RPM

D. Reduce alternator load during start

B.

5. Which statement about FADEC is correct?

A. FADEC only controls cabin pressurization

B. FADEC has complete authority over engine operating parameters such as fuel scheduling and often ignition, with no manual override in a full-authority installation

C. FADEC is used exclusively on reciprocating engines

D. FADEC eliminates the need for any engine sensors

B.

6. Why do most FADEC-equipped engines use dual, independent control channels?

A. To reduce fuel consumption

B. To allow the pilot to select between two different engines

C. To provide redundancy so a single channel failure does not result in loss of engine control

D. To increase igniter plug life

C.

7. A digital engine control system continuously trims fuel flow primarily based on:

A. Cabin altitude

B. Engine sensor inputs such as N1/N2 speed, EGT, and pressures

C. Outside air temperature only

D. Pilot throttle lever position alone, with no feedback

B.

8. Which type of starter is commonly used on turbine engines and also functions as a generator once the engine is running?

A. Inertia starter

B. Direct-cranking electric starter

C. Starter-generator

D. Hand-crank starter

C.

9. An air turbine starter on a turbine engine is typically powered by:

A. Bleed air from an APU, ground cart, or another running engine

B. Battery power only

C. Hydraulic fluid from the landing gear system

D. Ram air during flight only

A.

10. What mechanism allows a starter to disengage automatically once the engine reaches self-sustaining speed?

A. A pressure relief valve

B. An overrunning clutch (or similar automatic disengagement device)

C. A thermal fuse

D. A manual disconnect lever only

B.

Compared to a reciprocating engine's magneto ignition, a turbine engine's ignition system is typically used:

A. Continuously throughout every flight regime

B. Only for starting (and in select conditions such as icing, turbulence, or restart envelope protection)

C. Only during shutdown

D. Only above 20,000 feet

B.

Turbine engine ignition systems typically use a high-energy design because:

A. Igniter plugs have a wide gap and must fire reliably in high-pressure combustion conditions

B. Turbine fuel does not ignite easily at any pressure

C. Reciprocating and turbine igniters use identical low-energy circuits

D. High energy reduces overall system weight

A.

13. In a typical capacitor discharge (CD) turbine ignition system, the exciter unit contains:

A. A carburetor float and needle valve

B. A transformer-rectifier circuit and a storage capacitor

C. A distributor and breaker points

D. A vane-type flow sensor

B.

How many independent ignition systems are typically installed on a turbine engine, and why?

A. One, because turbine engines do not need redundancy

B. Two, for redundancy in case one system fails

C. Four, to match the number of igniter plugs required for every engine

D. Zero — turbine engines rely solely on residual heat for combustion

B.

15. Why is extra caution required when performing maintenance on a capacitor discharge ignition exciter unit?

A. It operates at very low voltage and poses no hazard

B. The capacitor can retain a lethal high-voltage charge even after the system is shut down and unpowered

C. It is fireproof and requires no special handling

D. It only becomes hazardous while the engine is running

B.

Before touching a CD ignition exciter unit or its leads, a technician should:

A. Immediately disconnect the battery and proceed without further precaution

B. Assume the capacitor is discharged because the switch is off

C. Follow the manufacturer's discharge/wait procedure and use a properly insulated grounding tool to verify discharge

D. Apply full aircraft power to bleed off the charge faster

C.

A CD ignition exciter unit that has failed should be:

A. Opened and repaired in the field using standard hand tools

B. Treated as a sealed line-replaceable unit and not opened for internal repair

C. Bypassed by connecting the igniter plug directly to the aircraft battery

D. Repaired only by increasing capacitor voltage

B.

18. During a magneto (mag) check on a reciprocating engine, an RPM drop that exceeds the manufacturer's allowable limit most likely indicates:

A. Normal operation requiring no further action

B. An ignition system problem, such as a fouled plug or magneto fault

C. Excessive manifold pressure

D. A fuel-flow transmitter failure

B.

A common tool used to verify a magneto's internal timing (E-gap) during maintenance is a:

A. Fuel-flow transmitter

B. Timing light (buzz box)

C. Torque wrench

D. Megohmmeter only

B.

A spark tester is used to:

A. Measure fuel pressure

B. Verify spark plug firing under conditions simulating compression pressure

C. Calibrate the tachometer

D. Test starter brush wear

B.

Which of the following is a likely cause of a rough-running reciprocating engine traced to the ignition system?

A. Fouled spark plug or deteriorated ignition harness lead

B. Overfilled oil sump

C. Excess manifold pressure

D. Correct EGT indication

A.

When inspecting an electrical starting system, a technician should pay particular attention to:

A. Propeller pitch settings

B. Starter brushes, commutator condition, and the starter relay/solenoid for arcing or wear

C. Landing gear retraction speed

D. Cabin pressurization controller

B.

A starter that cranks slowly and draws excessive current most likely indicates:

A. A fully charged battery with no other issues

B. Worn brushes, a faulty solenoid, low battery voltage, or a mechanical binding fault

C. Correct operation within normal limits

D. An overly lean fuel mixture

B.

The starter engagement mechanism on many reciprocating engine starters is a:

A. Vane-type flowmeter

B. Bendix drive or clutch mechanism

C. Thermocouple assembly

D. EPR probe

B.

25. When inspecting an ignition harness, a technician should look for:

A. Correct manifold pressure range markings

B. Cracked, chafed, or brittle insulation; carbon tracking; and corroded terminal connections

C. Fuel-flow transmitter calibration values

D. EICAS caution messages only

B.

What test is commonly used to check an ignition harness lead for insulation leakage to ground?

A. Insulation resistance ("megger") test

B. Fuel pressure test

C. Manifold pressure leak test

D. Torque check only

A.

The ignition switch on a reciprocating engine primarily functions to:

A. Increase magneto RPM

B. Ground the magneto primary (P-lead) circuit to turn the magneto off

C. Control starter engagement exclusively

D. Regulate oil pressure

B.

If a magneto's P-lead circuit is open (broken), what is the resulting hazard?

A. The magneto will always be safely grounded

B. The magneto remains "hot" and capable of firing even with the ignition switch in the OFF position

C. The engine will not start under any condition

D. The starter will not engage

B.

Before working around a propeller, a technician should always:

A. Assume the ignition is off because the switch is in the OFF position

B. Verify by continuity check that switch-off truly grounds both magnetos, and treat the prop as if ignition is live

C. Remove the propeller entirely as the only acceptable precaution

D. Disconnect the battery only, without checking the magneto grounding circuit

B.

When troubleshooting a turbine ignition system with no spark at the igniter, likely causes include:

A. A failed exciter unit, an open/shorted high-tension lead, or a fouled/eroded igniter plug

B. Excess oil pressure

C. A correctly calibrated EPR indicator

D. Normal EGT indications

A.

When identifying a replacement turbine engine igniter plug, a technician should:

A. Select any igniter plug that physically fits the port

B. Verify the correct part number using the maintenance manual/illustrated parts catalog for that specific engine model

C. Use only automotive spark plugs as substitutes

D. Assume all igniter plugs are interchangeable across all engine types

B.

During inspection of a turbine igniter plug, the technician checks:

A. Manifold pressure range markings

B. Gap dimension, insulator condition, and electrode erosion against manufacturer limits

C. Fuel-flow transmitter calibration

D. Tachometer generator output only

B.

On a turbine engine, fuel flow is most commonly measured using a:

A. Vane-type mechanical flowmeter only

B. Mass-flow transmitter that sends an electrical signal to the cockpit indicator

C. Bourdon tube pressure gauge

D. Thermocouple probe

B.

34. Which type of sensor generates its own small millivoltage signal proportional to temperature, without requiring external power at the sensing junction?

A. A thermocouple

B. A tachometer generator

C. A torquemeter

D. An EPR transmitter

A.

Which thermocouple lead wire alloy pairing is commonly used for cylinder head temperature (CHT) sensing?

A. Chromel-alumel

B. Iron-constantan

C. Copper-copper

D. Platinum-rhodium

B.

Why must thermocouple lead wire type and polarity match the thermocouple probe?

A. Mismatched leads or reversed polarity introduce measurement error

B. It has no effect on accuracy

C. It only affects fuel flow readings

D. It changes the engine's oil pressure limits

A.

37. Oil temperature is most commonly sensed using a:

A. Thermocouple identical to the EGT probe

B. Resistance bulb (thermistor/RTD-type) sensor

C. Vane-type flowmeter

D. Torquemeter strain gauge

B.

Which statement correctly describes a chromel-alumel thermocouple's typical application?

A. Used almost exclusively for oil pressure sensing

B. Commonly used for exhaust gas temperature (EGT) or turbine inlet temperature (TIT) sensing

C. Used only in the fuel flow transmitter

D. Used only for cabin temperature indication

B.

Older reciprocating aircraft engine tachometers were commonly driven by:

A. A flexible mechanical drive cable

B. A magnetic pickup and digital counter only

C. A thermocouple probe

D. An EPR transmitter

A.

A modern electric tachometer system typically uses a small engine-driven AC generator connected to:

A. A synchronous motor in the indicator that rotates in step with generator frequency

B. A Bourdon tube directly

C. A thermocouple reference junction

D. The starter solenoid

A.

On turbine engines, N1 and N2 speed are commonly measured using:

A. Magnetic pickups (speed sensors) that count gear teeth to generate a frequency signal

B. Thermocouples mounted in the exhaust

C. Vane-type fuel flow transmitters

D. Bourdon tube pressure gauges

A.

A gauge that indicates absolute pressure in the intake manifold of a reciprocating engine is a:

A. Manifold pressure gauge

B. Torquemeter

C. EPR indicator

D. Tachometer

A.

43. Oil pressure gauges are commonly one of which two types?

A. Direct mechanical (Bourdon-tube) or electrical (transducer-based)

B. Thermocouple-based or vane-type only

C. EICAS-only or ECAM-only

D. Magnetic pickup or annunciator-based

A.

A low oil pressure condition is often paired with which additional cockpit indication?

A. A warning light circuit

B. An EPR needle deflection only

C. A manifold pressure caution light only

D. No additional indication is ever provided

A.

Fuel pressure gauges are used primarily to confirm:

A. Correct propeller pitch

B. Adequate fuel delivery pressure to the engine-driven pump/carburetor or fuel control

C. Cabin pressurization differential

D. Starter engagement torque

B.

On an aircraft annunciator panel, a red indicator light typically represents:

A. A caution requiring attention soon

B. A warning indicating an immediate action item or hazard

C. Normal system status

D. Advisory information with no action required

B.

An amber or yellow annunciator light typically represents:

A. A warning requiring immediate action

B. A caution condition requiring the crew's attention soon, but not immediate emergency action

C. Normal operation

D. A test-only indication

B.

The "press-to-test" feature on an annunciator panel is used to:

A. Simulate an engine failure

B. Verify bulb/LED function

C. Reset the FADEC computer

D. Recalibrate the tachometer

B.

A torquemeter is primarily used on which type of engine to indicate shaft horsepower output?

A. Reciprocating engines only

B. Turboprop and turboshaft engines

C. Turbojet engines with no propeller or rotor

D. All engines equally, regardless of configuration

B.

One common torquemeter design senses twisting force on a gear/shaft by:

A. Measuring hydraulic pressure changes proportional to shaft twist (e.g., a helical gear moving axially against oil pressure)

B. Measuring EGT directly

C. Counting fuel flow pulses

D. Reading manifold pressure only

A.

An alternative modern torquemeter design uses:

A. Strain-gauge-based electronic sensing

B. A vane-type flowmeter

C. A thermocouple junction

D. A Bourdon tube exclusively

A.

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is defined as the ratio of:

A. Compressor inlet pressure to fuel pressure

B. Turbine discharge (exhaust) total pressure to compressor inlet total pressure

C. Oil pressure to manifold pressure

D. Fuel flow to oil temperature

B.

EPR is primarily used on many turbofan/turbojet engines as a:

A. Backup tachometer reading

B. Primary thrust-setting indication

C. Cabin pressurization reference

D. Starter cutoff signal

B.

EPR probes located at the engine inlet and exhaust feed which type of instrument to produce the cockpit indication?

A. A differential pressure transmitter

B. A vane-type flowmeter

C. A thermocouple

D. A magnetic pickup

A.

EICAS is best described as:

A. An Airbus-exclusive analog gauge cluster

B. A digital system that displays primary engine parameters and caution/warning messages on a common display, commonly used on Boeing aircraft

C. A backup mechanical tachometer system

D. A fuel-flow-only indicating system

B.

EICAS typically includes which two display modes?

A. A primary display (always shown) and a secondary/status display selectable by the crew

B. A fuel-only display and an oil-only display

C. Two identical redundant primary displays with no secondary function

D. An analog-only display with no digital component

A.

FADEC's role in modern engine instrument displays is to:

A. Provide the digital data used to drive parameters such as N1, N2, EGT, and fuel flow, and to compute limits for exceedance flags

B. Replace the need for any cockpit instruments entirely

C. Only control cabin lighting

D. Serve as a backup mechanical gauge

A.

ECAM is best described as:

A. The Boeing-exclusive equivalent of a mechanical tachometer

B. The Airbus-style counterpart to EICAS, presenting engine/system parameters and procedural checklists

C. A turbine ignition exciter component

D. A type of igniter plug

B.

On an engine instrument, a red radial line or arc typically indicates:

A. Normal operating range

B. A maximum or minimum limit that should not be exceeded

C. A caution range only

D. No operational significance

B.

A green arc on an engine instrument dial typically represents:

A. The normal operating range

B. The maximum limit only

C. A caution range requiring immediate shutdown

D. An advisory-only indication with no defined range

A.

A blue radial line is sometimes found on manifold pressure gauges to indicate:

A. The absolute minimum operating limit

B. The maximum manifold pressure for lean-mixture (economy) operation

C. A caution for rich mixture only

D. The starter engagement limit

B.

62. Instrument range markings on an engine gauge must correspond to:

A. The technician's personal preference

B. The aircraft's approved data, such as the type certificate data sheet or AFM

C. The manufacturer of the spark plugs installed

D. The starter generator rating only

B.

A common cause of maintenance-induced damage to an instrument or indicating system includes:

A. Correctly torqued fittings and undamaged capillary lines

B. Overtightened/cross-threaded fittings or reversed wiring polarity on sensor leads

C. Properly calibrated thermocouples

D. Routine inspection performed strictly per the manual

B.

After suspected maintenance damage to an instrument system, the correct procedure is to:

A. Return the aircraft to service without further action if the gauge still moves

B. Document the damage and perform a functional check/calibration before return to service

C. Disable the system permanently

D. Replace only the cockpit display bezel

B.

Instrument error is best defined as:

A. The deviation between the indicated value and the actual (true) value

B. A malfunction that always requires immediate grounding of the aircraft

C. The difference between two pilots' readings of the same gauge

D. An error that can never be corrected through calibration

66. Instrument calibration is typically performed by comparing the instrument's reading against:

A. A known calibrated standard, such as a test set or calibrated pressure/temperature source

B. The pilot's personal estimate

C. Another instrument of unknown accuracy

D. The instrument's own prior reading with no external reference

A.

When troubleshooting an oil temperature/pressure instrument system with no indication, the recommended approach is to:

A. Replace the indicator first without further diagnosis

B. Isolate wiring/connector issues from the sensor by substitution or resistance/continuity checks before condemning the sensor or gauge

C. Assume the engine itself has failed

D. Ignore the fault if the engine still runs

B.

A low fuel pressure warning light that illuminates in flight while the fuel pressure gauge reads normal most likely indicates:

A. An actual fuel starvation emergency confirmed by both indications

B. A fault in the warning switch/sender rather than an actual pressure problem

C. A manifold pressure gauge failure

D. A tachometer calibration error

B.

69. When removing and installing a fuel-flow transmitter, the technician should:

A. Skip safety wiring since it is optional

B. Safety wire fittings per the maintenance manual and leak-check per applicable procedures before return to service

C. Apply sealant to all electrical connectors

D. Bypass the transmitter and wire the indicator directly to the battery

B.

As part of troubleshooting a zero or erratic fuel-flow indication, a technician should verify:

A. The fuel-flow transmitter's power supply voltage and continuity

B. Only the cabin pressurization system

C. The igniter plug gap

D. The starter brush length

A.

The components of a typical electric tachometer system include:

A. An engine-driven generator (or magnetic pickup), wiring, and the cockpit indicator

B. A thermocouple probe and reference junction only

C. An EPR transmitter and differential pressure sensor

D. A capacitor discharge exciter unit

A.

When inspecting tachometer markings for accuracy, a technician should check them against:

A. The pilot's personal experience

B. Limits specified in the type certificate data sheet

C. The starter generator's rated output

D. The fuel-flow transmitter's serial number

B.

When measuring resistance in a thermocouple indication system, a technician should be aware that:

A. A standard ohmmeter's internal battery current can create a false thermoelectric reading if not accounted for, so a low-reading ohmmeter or specified test set should be used

B. Any standard ohmmeter provides a perfectly accurate reading with no special considerations

C. Resistance measurements are irrelevant to thermocouple troubleshooting

D. Thermocouple circuits should never be resistance tested

A.

When inspecting an EGT probe, the technician should check for:

A. Cracking, erosion, or contamination of the probe tip and secure mounting

B. Correct manifold pressure range markings

C. Starter brush wear

D. Ignition switch grounding continuity

A.

When troubleshooting an EGT indicating system, a technician can isolate the fault between the probe, harness/leads, and indicator by:

A. Replacing the entire aircraft wiring harness without further diagnosis

B. Using resistance checks and, where available, substituting a calibrated millivolt source at the indicator to confirm indicator accuracy independent of the probe

C. Relying solely on pilot reports with no technical verification

D. Assuming the indicator is always at fault

B.

In a magneto secondary circuit, the function of the secondary winding is to:

A. Step up the collapsing primary field to very high voltage for spark plug firing

B. Store fuel flow data for the FADEC

C. Regulate starter engagement timing

D. Provide DC current to charge the battery

A.

What triggers the breaker points (or electronic switch) to interrupt the primary circuit in a magneto?

A. Reaching maximum manifold pressure

B. The rotating magnet reaching the E-gap position in its rotation

C. A signal from the FADEC computer

D. The starter disengaging

B.

Which best describes the redundancy design philosophy that keeps a FADEC system operating after a single channel fault?

A. The engine shuts down automatically

B. The pilot manually rewires the control unit

C. The system automatically switches to the healthy channel while isolating the faulted one

D. Both channels shut down simultaneously for safety

C.

The purpose of a starter adapter/clutch on a direct-cranking electric starter is to:

A. Increase starter torque indefinitely

B. Convert AC power to DC for the starter motor

C. Provide fuel to the engine during start

D. Allow the starter to disengage or slip once the engine starts, protecting it from overspeed

D.

In a capacitor discharge ignition system, energy is stored in the exciter's capacitor and released:

A. In a rapid, high-energy pulse to the igniter plug when triggered

B. Continuously as a steady trickle current

C. Only during engine shutdown

D. Directly to the starter motor

A.

Warning placards on a CD ignition exciter unit typically caution technicians about:

A. Low oil pressure hazards

B. High voltage and shock hazard, even when the unit appears unpowered

C. Fuel contamination

D. Excessive manifold pressure

B.

When troubleshooting an ignition harness, correctly numbered/labeled leads primarily help the technician:

A. Reduce fuel consumption

B. Calibrate the tachometer

C. Correctly route each lead to its matching cylinder/spark plug and avoid crossfiring

D. Increase manifold pressure readings

C.

Moisture intrusion into an ignition harness connector is a concern primarily because it can:

A. Increase fuel flow indications

B. Improve insulation resistance

C. Have no effect on ignition performance

D. Cause current leakage or arcing and reduce spark energy at the plug

D.

A continuity check confirming that turning the ignition switch OFF actually grounds both magnetos is important because it:

A. Verifies no residual "hot mag" hazard exists before working around the propeller

B. Confirms the starter will engage properly

C. Tests the fuel-flow transmitter power supply

D. Calibrates the EGT indicating system

A.

85. When troubleshooting a suspected ignition problem versus a fuel problem on a rough-running engine, a good first step is to:

A. Replace the fuel-flow transmitter immediately

B. Perform a mag check or spark test to isolate whether the fault is ignition-related before inspecting fuel components

C. Replace all engine instruments

D. Adjust the torquemeter calibration

B.

During an inspection of a turbine ignition system, connector tightness and security should be checked primarily to prevent:

A. Excess oil pressure

B. Incorrect manifold pressure readings

C. Intermittent connections or arcing caused by vibration-induced looseness

D. Reduced torquemeter accuracy

C.

87. Compared to an EGT thermocouple (chromel-alumel), a CHT thermocouple (iron-constantan) is typically used because:

A. It requires external electrical power to operate

B. It is used only on turbine engines

C. It measures fuel flow rather than temperature

D. It's better suited to the lower temperature range at the cylinder head compared to exhaust gas temperatures

D.

A key difference between a turbine engine's magnetic pickup speed sensor and an older mechanical tachometer drive is that the magnetic pickup:

A. Generates an electrical frequency signal with no direct mechanical linkage to the indicator

B. Requires a flexible drive cable connected directly to the indicator

C. Uses a thermocouple to sense speed

D. Only works below 50% engine speed

A.

A Bourdon tube pressure gauge operates by:

A. Generating a millivolt signal proportional to pressure

B. Using a curved tube that straightens proportionally to internal pressure, moving a linked pointer

C. Counting gear teeth to produce a frequency signal

D. Comparing turbine discharge pressure to compressor inlet pressure

B.

A green or blue advisory light on an annunciator panel generally indicates:

A. An immediate emergency requiring engine shutdown

B. A caution requiring attention within a defined time

C. Normal system status or informational data, not a fault

D. A confirmed ignition system failure

C.

Accurate torquemeter indication is especially critical on turboprop engines because:

A. It replaces the need for a tachometer entirely

B. It measures fuel flow directly

C. It only matters during engine shutdown

D. Propeller power output must be regulated by measured torque rather than by RPM or EPR alone

D.

92. EPR sensing probes are physically located at the:

A. Compressor inlet and turbine (exhaust) discharge

B. Oil sump and manifold only

C. Starter and igniter plug

D. Cabin inlet and outflow valve

A.

One benefit of an EICAS-type display over a traditional round-dial gauge cluster is that it:

A. Eliminates the need for any engine sensors

B. Consolidates multiple engine parameters and alerts onto fewer, digitally-driven displays

C. Only works on reciprocating engines

D. Requires manual recalibration before every flight

B.

A yellow or amber arc on an engine instrument dial generally represents:

A. The normal operating range

B. A hard limit that must never be reached

C. A caution range approaching a limit, warranting monitoring

D. An unused portion of the dial with no meaning

C.

95. To help prevent maintenance-induced damage to sensitive instrument or avionics components, a technician should:

A. Skip torque values on sensor fittings to save time

B. Apply extra sealant to all wiring connectors

C. Avoid documenting any suspected damage

D. Follow proper electrostatic discharge (ESD) precautions when handling electronic modules

D.

When troubleshooting an oil pressure instrument system, comparing the sensor's resistance/output against a known-good reference value helps determine whether:

A. The fault lies in the sensor itself versus the wiring or indicator

B. The aircraft requires a full engine overhaul

C. The fuel type needs to be changed

D. The torquemeter needs recalibration

A.

In an electric tachometer indicator, the synchronous motor's rotational speed is directly related to:

A. Oil pressure at the engine-driven pump

B. The frequency of the AC signal produced by the engine-driven generator

C. Cabin pressurization differential

D. EGT probe resistance

B.

Using a specified low-reading ohmmeter or thermocouple test set (rather than a standard ohmmeter) for thermocouple resistance checks is important because:

A. Standard ohmmeters cannot measure any resistance below 100 ohms

B. Thermocouples do not have measurable resistance

C. A standard ohmmeter's battery current can create a false thermoelectric junction and skew the reading

D. Test sets are required by law regardless of accuracy

C.

To locate the components of a low fuel pressure warning system for inspection or test, a technician should first:

A. Assume the switch is located next to the tachometer indicator

B. Remove the fuel tank without further reference

C. Rely on memory from a different aircraft type

D. Consult the aircraft maintenance manual for the system's schematic and component locations

D.

Substituting a calibrated millivolt source at the EGT indicator during troubleshooting helps a technician determine whether:

A. The indicator itself is reading accurately, independent of the probe and harness

B. The fuel-flow transmitter is properly grounded

C. The starter generator output is within limits

D. The manifold pressure gauge needs recalibration

A.