exam number 2

which of the following membranes is not composed of cells

basement membrane

collagen and elastin fibers are typically found in

connective tissue

cells in cardiac muscle are able to contract in a coordinated fashion because of communication made possible through

gap junctions

exocrine and endocrine glands are types of

epithelial tissue

the thoracic cavity is located ___________ to the abdominal cavity

superior

what property do all muscle tissues have in common

ability to contract

injury to bone heals more quickly than injury to cartilage because:

there is a richer blood supply to bone

which of the following tissues may be found in the skin

smooth muscle, fibrous connective tissue, nervous tissue, epithelial tissue

which of the following is responsible for the pigmentation of the skin

melanin

when a decrease in blood pressure is detected by the central nervous system, the central nervous system triggers several changes that will return the blood pressure to its set point. this is an example of:

negative feedback

the presence of a full bladder triggers the bladder to contract. as a little urine is released, this causes more contractions which will completely empty the bladder. this is an example of:

positive feedback

which type of tissue stores triglycerides?

adipose tissue

a substantial amount of nonliving extracellular material, also known as the matrix, characterizes all:

connective tissue

all of the following organ systems may be involved in thermoregulation except

skeletal system

reducing food intake may lead to weight loss by

decreasing the volume of adipocytes

which of the following might result from a parathyroid tumor which causes oversecretion of parathyroid hormone

bone less due to stimulation of osteoclasts

steps in the repair of a bone fracture include (1) bone deposition by osteoblasts, (2) bone and debris removal by osteoclasts, (3) hematoma, and (4) formation of a fibrocartilage callus. in what order do these steps occur?

(3) hematoma

(4) formation of a fibrocartilage callus

(2) bone and debris removal by osteoclasts

(1) bone deposition by osteoblasts

all of the following bones form part of the eye socket except:

occipital bone

all of the following bones of the skull are stationary except:

mandible

which bones are found in both the hands and feet

phalanges

the movement of the thumb to trace a circle might best be described as

circumduction

synovial joints may include cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and synovial fluid. which of these attach bones to other bones within the joint?

ligaments

which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

pubic symphysis

all of the following are bones of the axial skeleton except:

clavicle

which of the following would be likely to prevent or slow the bone loss of osteoporosis?

stimulate the activity of osteoblasts, inhibit the activity of osteoclasts

which of the following contains the richest population of the stem-cell precursors for red and white blood cells?

red bone marrow

in the formation and development of bones within the fetus, which of these cell types functions earliest?

chondroblasts

which of the following might be most helpful in determining whether an adolescent is no longer growing

examining the growth plates near the ends of long bones

all of the following processes continue in. the skeletal system throughout the life span except:

bones continue to lengthen

which kind of joint is essentially immovable?

fibrous joint

muscles which oppose each other and produce opposite movements are described as

antagonistic

which of the following choices arranges the structures (1) muscle fiber, (2) fascicle, (3) myofibril, (4) muscle from the largest (most inclusive) to smallest

(4) muscle

(2) fascicle

(1) muscle fiber

(3) myofibril

all of the following are functions of the muscular system except:

maintenance of body calcium stores

which of the following happens during muscle contraction?

sarcomeres shorten

botulism toxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junctions. what effect does this have on the muscle activity?

muscles will not contract because they will not receive nerve stimulation

the sliding filament mechanism describes the process during which

actin and myosin slide relative to each other

what is the first and most direct energy source for muscle contraction?

ATP

as you clasp your hands in front of you and push them toward each other, this is an example of

an isometric contraction

all of the following may happen in response to exercise training except:

increase in the number of muscle fibers

which of the following is/are characteristic of slow-twitch fibers?

myoglobin content enables oxygen storage, numerous mitochondria

which of the following is the site of calcium ion storage within muscles?

sarcoplasmic reticulum

what is the role of ATP in muscle function?

ATP provides energy which enables myosin to form cross-bridges with actin

ATP enables myosin to detach from actin

ATP provides energy to transport calcium back into storage

which of the following would have motor units with the smallest number of muscle cells?

muscles in fingers

which type(s) of muscle cells can contract the fastest?

skeletal muscle cells

which type(s) of muscle cells can contract spontaneously?

smooth muscle cells

cardiac muscle cells

all of the following proteins are associated with blood. which of these is found specifically inside red blood cells?

hemoglobin

which of the following blood components protects the individual from a variety of infectious agents such as bacteria and viruses

white blood cells

which of the following make(s) up the greatest volume of whole blood?

plasma

which of the following influence(s) the bonding of oxygen to hemoglobin?

pH

oxygen concentration

temperature

jason has just spent four weeks in Rocky Mountain national park, studying plants that grow above 10,000 feet elevation, which of the following would be a likely change in his blood because of time spent at high elevation?

increased number of red blood cells

a person with type a negative blood will have

type a antigens on the red blood cells

a deficiency of platelets would result in

bleeding and bruising

which donor blood type would be most appropriate for transfusing an o negative recipient

o negative

what do erythroblasts, myeloblasts, lymphoblasts, and megakaryoblasts have in common

they are immature cells found in the bone marrow

jaundice is caused by the presence of ________ in the blood plasma, which is a breakdown product of _________

bilirubin.....hemoglobin

which white blood cells are present in the greatest number in the blood and are the body's first responders to infection?

neutrophils

the steps in the hemostasis process are (1) platelets become sticky and form a platelet plug (2) prothrombin is converted to thrombin by prothrombin activator. (3) walls of a damaged blood vessels undergo spasms, (4) a clot forms from fibrin, platelets and trapped red blood cells, and (5) fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. which of the following choices represents the correct order of these steps?

(3) walls of damaged blood vessels undergo spasms

(2) prothrombin is converted to thrombin by prothrombin activator

(1) platelets become sticky and form a platelet plug

(4) a clot forms from fibrin, platelets, and trapped red blood cells

(5) fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

hemophilia results from

a lack of one or more plasma proteins involved in blood clotting

which of the following can lead to anemia

insufficient iron in the diet

insufficient vitamin b12 absorption from the digestive tract

which property do red blood cells and platelets have in common

both lack a nucleus

_________ carry blood away from the heart and ________ carry blood toward the heart

arteries........veins

which blood vessel is best suited for exchange of gases and nutrients with the surrounding tissue

capillary

which of the choices represents the order of vessels through which blood passes after leaving the heart?

artery--arteriole--capillary--venule--vein

all of the following mechanisms assist in returning venous blood to the heart except:

an increase of heart rate

which of the following represents the order of structures beginning inside the ventricle and traveling outward?

endocardium--myocardium--epicardium--pericardium

which vein(s) carry oxygenated blood?

right and left pulmonary veins

which of the following statements regarding the cardiac cycle is false?

when the atria contracts, the semilunar valves open

a pacemaker is used to correct

cardiac arrhythmias

as the blood travels through the circulatory system, the greatest drop in pressure occurs in

arterioles

all of the following are part of the cardiac conduction system except:

the chordae tendineae

which of the following is/are involved in regulated blood pressure?

heart, baroreceptors, cardiovascular center in medulla oblongata

which of the following would be an appropriate homeostatic response to a drop in blood pressure below what is normal?

vasoconstriction of arterioles

which of the following might cause the heart rate to increase from 68 beats/min to 120 beats/min

epinephrine

stimulation via sympathetic nerves

which of the following might be appropriately treated by administering clot-dissolving drugs?

pulmonary embolism

a heart attack occurs as a result of

narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries

can someone with type b blood receive blood from someone with type a blood

no

what are important in the donor (the person giving blood)

the antigens (the blood group)

what is important in the recipient (the person receiving blood)

the antibodies, type b blood has a antibodies and b antigens

what do we don't want with blood typing?

the antigens to match the antibodies, they can't be the same

true or false: the supporting cells of the nervous system are glial/neroglial cells

true, the number of glial cells is larger than the number of neurons. 5 times are many glial cells and neuroglial cells than neurons

can someone with type a blood receive type o blood?

yes, type o is the universal donor because o is a blood group, they have zero antigens which means there is no antibody that will attach to them

where does all skin cancer originate?

all originates in the epidermis; the top layer of skin

true or false: slow twitch muscle fibers have a lot of mitochondria

true, aerobic is slower, anaerobic is faster

what are eosinophils used for?

parasitic infections such as worms

true or false: the three main types of muscle cells are smooth, striated, and cardiac

false, skeletal should replace striated

what is a sarcomere

the contractile unit of a muscle

what's a bundle of muscle fibers?

fascicle

t or f: connective tissue is not tightly bound

true, epithelial tissue is tightly bound because of the cell to cell junctions that anchor cells together which prevents things from getting through the cells

is blood tightly bound

no

what circumstance can lead to a problem with the second baby in regard to Rh factor?

Rh positive dad and Rh negative mom; no d antibodies until someone has been exposed to them, screwing up the second pregnancy

true or false: the living cells of cartilage are called chondrocytes

true

true or false: the epidermis is made up of mostly keratinocytes

true, keratinocytes produce keratin, melanocytes are also from in the epidermis. keratinocytes cause the skin to be waterproof

what happens in rigor mortis?

the sarcoplasmic reticulum gets leaky and releases calcium

leftover atp in the cell is used to form cross-bridges

when the muscles become stiff after death

what direction do arteries carry blood?

away from the heart

what direction do veins carry blood?

towards the heart

what is the most common type of skin cancer? what is the least common type?

the most common type is basal cell carcinoma

the least common type is melanoma

which type of cholesterol is your "good cholesterol"

HDL, higher than a certain number

what should your LDL be at or below?

130

what should your HDL be at or higher than

40

your total cholesterol.....

should be below 200