Microbiology 2nd half

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124 Terms

1
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the most common portal of entry for human pathogens is the skin.

t/f

false

2
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adhesions are anything that a microbe may use to “stick” to host cells or surfaces, such as, capsules, fimbrae or pili.

t/f

true

3
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One way that pathogens may cause damage to a host is through competition for nutrients.

t/f

true

4
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which of the following is a type of exotoxin?

superantigen

membrane disrupting toxin

AB toxin

all of these

all of these

5
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which of the following is not a virulence factor?

antigenic variation

cell wall/membrane components

bacterial enzymes

number of microbes

number of microbes

6
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the portal of exit is almost never the same as the portal of entry for a pathogen

t/f

false

7
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A pathogen that is abel to establish an infection in an otherwise healthy host is referred to as a:

transient pathogen

primary pathogen

opportunistic pathogen

secondary pathogen

primary pathogen

8
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a disease that can be transmitted from host to host by direct contact is a __ disease

contagious

communicable

nasty

noncommunicable

communicable

9
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an abnormal increase in the number of cases of a disease in a population is referred to as a/n

epidemic

sporadic

endemic

pandemic

epidemic

10
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a disease in which there are periods of pathogen inactivity or dormancy is a ___ disease

chronic

latent

subacute

acute

latent

11
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an infection that involves multiple sites and/or organs and tissues is classsified as:

focal subclinical

localized

systemic

systemic

12
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The stage of disease development with mild sign and symptoms is:

incubation

illness

convalescence

prodromal

prodromal

13
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the 2 categories of vehicle transmission include all of the following except:

water born

new borne

air borne

food borne

new borne

14
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A biological vector is one that harbors the pathogen within its tissue.

t/f

true

15
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a format is an inanimate object in the environment and is involved in direct contact transmission

t/f

false

16
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normal flora may become pathogenic if they gain access to areas of the body that they normally could not access.

t/f

true

17
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a subclinical case of a disease is one that meets the diagnostic threshold by displaying the syndrome for that disease.

t/f

false

18
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A wound infection would be an example of which portal of entry?

parenteral route

mucous membranes

skin

parenteral route

19
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the most common portal of entry for human pathogens is:

mucous membranes

parenteral route

skin

mucous membranes

20
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Which of the following exotoxin types include an active portion and a binding portion.

endotoxins

superantigens

AB toxins

membrane disrupting toxins

ab toxins

21
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which would be the most likely portal of exit for a respiratory pathogen?

defecation

urination

a vector

respiration

respiration

22
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the term that refers to anything a microbe might use to stick to host cells or surfaces is:

ex: capsules, slime layer, pili, fimbrae

adhesin

23
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__ can be a measure of both the severity of disease and the strength of the ability of a pathogen to establish an infection.

virulence or ID50

24
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A disease’s cause is called the __ for infectious disease it would be a microbe or microbial substance such as a toxin.

etiology

25
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a __ carrier is the most dangerous to public health because they do not at anytime show signs or symptoms of disease, making them hard to identify.

healthy

26
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the non-specific or innate defenses work either just because they are there or because something is foreign to the body. in contrast the specific defenses identify and attack particular antigens.

t/f

true

27
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our body does not provide a suitable environment for some microbes. this statement best describes the innate defense category: phagocytosis.

t/f

false

28
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which of the following is responsible for antigen recognition and presentation?

Fh factor

MHC 1

ABO group antigens

MHC 2

MHC 2

29
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which of the following complement components has 2 jobs? specifically the outcome apsinization and the activation of C5.

C2b

C3b

C3a

C4a

C3b

30
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one of important functions of fever is to increase the proliferation of __.

antigens

antibodies

red blood cells

white blood cells

white blood cells

31
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of the 2 complaint pathways only the classical can be potentially activated by any antigen/microbe.

t/f

true

32
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ll 3 activation pathways are identical after the activation of:

c2

c4

c3

c5

c3

33
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Antibodies passed in breast milk is an example of

natural passive immunity

artificial passive immunity

artificial active immunity

natural active immunity

natural passive immunity

34
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which t cell type is responsible for controlling an immune response and bringing t to an end when hee=re is no longer circulating antigen?

t regulator/suppressor

T helper

T cytotoxic

T natural killer

regulator/suppressor

35
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In which immune response may signs and symptoms of disease be reduced or absent?

primary

secodnary

secondary

36
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which antibody class is found on the surface or B cells and is responsible for B cell activation?

G

A

E

D

M

D

37
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Which antibody class can cross the placental barrier?

G

M

D

E

A

G

38
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Which antibody is found to surface of mast cells and basophils?

E

M

D

G

A

E

39
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Which antibody class is pentamer

E

M

D

G

A

M

40
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Which B cell daughter cell is responsible for producing against the antigens that activated the parent cells?

plasma cell

memory cell

plasma cell

41
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what self antigen is found on al nucleated body cells

MHC 1

MHC 2

MHc1

42
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Which hypersensitivity involves cytotoxic T cells and can take several ays to develop?

2

1

3

4

4

43
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Our body’s do not provide a suitable environment for some microbes. This statement refers to the non-specific defense category ___.

Species resistance

44
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Antibodies passed to breast-fed infant in breast milk is an example of the general type of immunity: ___ immunity.

natural passive

45
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__ is the self antigen found on all nucleated body cells.

MHC 1

46
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Immunological memory could best be described as the programming or sensitization of __ lymphocytes.

B

47
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increasing WBC proliferation is one of the main purposes of the non-specific defense __.

fever

48
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The only antibody class which can cross the placental barrier is __.

IgE

IgA

IgG

IgD

IgG

49
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The antibody binding sites are found on the __ region the antibody molecule.

variable

constant

variable

50
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The tissue repair which is done by supporting tissues and results in scar formation is parenchymal repair.

t/f

false

51
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Signs and symptoms of disease are more likely to occur with a primary immune response.

T/F

true

52
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A microbe with bond BDP factors is the trigger for the __ pathway for complement activation.

lectin

classical

alternate

alternate

53
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the 2 inflammatory mediators not present in the alternate pathway are:

C2a, C4b

C5b, C6

C3a, C5a

C2b, C4a

C2b, C4a

54
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A phagocyte presenting processed antigen to a B lymphocyte is an example of integrated defenses.

t/f

true

55
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Serum IgA (the monomer form) is found on mucosal surfaces and in exocrine gland secretions.

t/f

false

56
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IgG is the antibody class produced first in the __ immune response.

primary

secondary

secondary

57
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A — is a molecule too small to be recognized by the immune system by itself, however, it can be recognized in conjunction with another molecule such as the MHC 2 of an antigen presenting cell.

hapten

58
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While secretory IgA is always present in great milk, IgG can be present if the mother has an active immune response.

T/F

true

59
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A T dependent antigen requires input from a T — cell to activate the B cell.

helper

60
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An __ is a molecule capable of being recognized by the immune system

antigen

61
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which of the following is not a goal of the inflammatory response

produce antibody

isolate the site

attack abc to the site

initiate repair

produce antibody

62
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which of the following is not one of the 3 Rs we discussed in relation to immunity

recover

react

remember

recognize

recover

63
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Which yeast group has symmetrical divison

budding

fission

fission

64
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which fungal division produces asexual conidiospores and sexual ascospores?

deuteromycota

ascomycota

zygomycota

basidiomycota

ascomycota

65
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which fungal division produces asexual sporangiospores?

Zygomycota

Ascomycota

Basidiomycota

Deuteromycota

Zygomycota

66
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Fungal diseases such as pneumocystis pneumonia and meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neofarmans are considered “red flag” diseases for AIDS because people with competent immune systems either rarely get them or get mild cases.

t/f

true

67
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Which of the following fungal pathogens causes vaginitis? ( also causes thrush)

basidiobolus ranum

candida albicans

coccidiodes immits

histoplasma capsulatum

candida albicans

68
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Which of the following tineas affects the groin region?

capitis

corporis

pedis

cruris

cruris

69
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which of the following could be described as a reinforced cell membrane?

contractile vacuole

pellicle

oral groove

cytostome

pellicle

70
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which of the following protozoan pathogens causes african sleeping sickness?

trichomonas vaginalis

trypanosome brucei

trypanosoma cruzi

trichura trichuriae

trypanosoma brucei

71
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the mode of transmission for meningoencephalitis either caused by acanthamoeba spa. or by Naeglaria fowler is the amoeba entering the nasal passages with swimming.

t/f

true

72
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Giardiasis is transmitted by mosquitoes.

t/f

false

73
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T/F: all of the following are transmitted via the fecal/oral route:

Cryptosporidiosis

cyclosporiasis

giardiasis

amoebic dysentery

leishmaniasis

falsem

74
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alaria is caused by 4 species of plasmodium and is transmitted by mosquitoes.

t/f

true

75
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One of the adaptations we see in parasitic helminths is a large egg production capacity.

t/f

true

76
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Some helminths have separate sexes (a male and female) however some may be monoecious meaning that they are hermaphrodites with male and female reproductive organs in the the same individual.

t/f

true

77
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Cestodes (tapeworm) are all dioecious and have complete digestive systems t/f

false

78
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the nematodes are the round worms (aschelminthes) while the cestodes and trematodes are the flat worms (platyhelminthes) t/f

true

79
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Which of the following is not transmitted via fecal/oral route?

dracunculus medinesnsis

ascaris lumbriocoides

enterbius vermicularis

dracunculus medinensis

80
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larva invading the sin from the soil is the mode of transmission for:

wucheria Bancrofti and brugia malayi

ancyclostoma duodenal and nectar americanus

ancylostoma duodena and necatur americanus

81
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the tine which affects the head/scalp is tine __.

captis

82
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the 2 types of asexual fungal spores are sporangiospores and __.

condidiospores

83
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the protozoan organelle which rids the cell of excess water (like a bilge pump in a boat) is the __ __.

contractile vacuole

84
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the hookworms and threadworms have larva that invade the skin rom the __.

soil

85
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platyhelminthes has two divisions the trematodes (flukes) and __. (tape worms)

cestodes

86
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which of the following is not agenuus that causes fungal tineas?

trichophyton

epidermaphyton

microsporum

candida

candida

87
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which of the following the causative agent for pinworms?

enterobius vermicularis

nectar americanus

trichomonas vaginalis

ascaris lumbricoides

enterobius vermicularis

88
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trypanosoma cruzi îs the causative agnet for:

toxoplasmois

malaria

african sleeping sickness

chagas disease

chagas disease

89
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Which fungal division only has asexual spores?

deuteromycota

ascomycota

zygomycota

basidiomycota

aeuteromycota

90
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All protozoans are motile at some stage in their life cycle. t/f

true

91
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Diphylobothrium datum is the causative agent for the __ tapeworms.

fish

92
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the vector that transmit the helminthic infection river blindness (caused by Onchocerca Volulus) is the __ fly.

black

93
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The causative agent for toxoplasmosis is trichomonads vaginalis. t/f

false

94
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Cryptosporidiosis, cyclosporiasis, amoebic dysentery, ascariasis, and pinworms are all transmitted by mosquitoes. t/f

false

95
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Which os the following is a species of plasmodium which causes malaria?

ovale

all of these

vivax

malariae

falciparnum

all

96
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Ascaris larva migrate to the lungs to mature before being swallowed back into digestive tract as adults. t/f

true

97
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which protozoan disease that we discussed is considered a sexually transmitted disease?

giardiasis

trichenosis

toxoplasmosis

trichomoniasis

trichomoniasis

98
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Lymphatic filariasis is transmitted by mosquitoes t/f

true

99
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which protozoan group is motile by flagella?

apicomplexa

mastigophora

sacodina

ciliophora

mastigophoran

100
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some fungi can produce toxins such as ergots and aflatoxins. t/f

ture