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the most common portal of entry for human pathogens is the skin.
t/f
false
adhesions are anything that a microbe may use to “stick” to host cells or surfaces, such as, capsules, fimbrae or pili.
t/f
true
One way that pathogens may cause damage to a host is through competition for nutrients.
t/f
true
which of the following is a type of exotoxin?
superantigen
membrane disrupting toxin
AB toxin
all of these
all of these
which of the following is not a virulence factor?
antigenic variation
cell wall/membrane components
bacterial enzymes
number of microbes
number of microbes
the portal of exit is almost never the same as the portal of entry for a pathogen
t/f
false
A pathogen that is abel to establish an infection in an otherwise healthy host is referred to as a:
transient pathogen
primary pathogen
opportunistic pathogen
secondary pathogen
primary pathogen
a disease that can be transmitted from host to host by direct contact is a __ disease
contagious
communicable
nasty
noncommunicable
communicable
an abnormal increase in the number of cases of a disease in a population is referred to as a/n
epidemic
sporadic
endemic
pandemic
epidemic
a disease in which there are periods of pathogen inactivity or dormancy is a ___ disease
chronic
latent
subacute
acute
latent
an infection that involves multiple sites and/or organs and tissues is classsified as:
focal subclinical
localized
systemic
systemic
The stage of disease development with mild sign and symptoms is:
incubation
illness
convalescence
prodromal
prodromal
the 2 categories of vehicle transmission include all of the following except:
water born
new borne
air borne
food borne
new borne
A biological vector is one that harbors the pathogen within its tissue.
t/f
true
a format is an inanimate object in the environment and is involved in direct contact transmission
t/f
false
normal flora may become pathogenic if they gain access to areas of the body that they normally could not access.
t/f
true
a subclinical case of a disease is one that meets the diagnostic threshold by displaying the syndrome for that disease.
t/f
false
A wound infection would be an example of which portal of entry?
parenteral route
mucous membranes
skin
parenteral route
the most common portal of entry for human pathogens is:
mucous membranes
parenteral route
skin
mucous membranes
Which of the following exotoxin types include an active portion and a binding portion.
endotoxins
superantigens
AB toxins
membrane disrupting toxins
ab toxins
which would be the most likely portal of exit for a respiratory pathogen?
defecation
urination
a vector
respiration
respiration
the term that refers to anything a microbe might use to stick to host cells or surfaces is:
ex: capsules, slime layer, pili, fimbrae
adhesin
__ can be a measure of both the severity of disease and the strength of the ability of a pathogen to establish an infection.
virulence or ID50
A disease’s cause is called the __ for infectious disease it would be a microbe or microbial substance such as a toxin.
etiology
a __ carrier is the most dangerous to public health because they do not at anytime show signs or symptoms of disease, making them hard to identify.
healthy
the non-specific or innate defenses work either just because they are there or because something is foreign to the body. in contrast the specific defenses identify and attack particular antigens.
t/f
true
our body does not provide a suitable environment for some microbes. this statement best describes the innate defense category: phagocytosis.
t/f
false
which of the following is responsible for antigen recognition and presentation?
Fh factor
MHC 1
ABO group antigens
MHC 2
MHC 2
which of the following complement components has 2 jobs? specifically the outcome apsinization and the activation of C5.
C2b
C3b
C3a
C4a
C3b
one of important functions of fever is to increase the proliferation of __.
antigens
antibodies
red blood cells
white blood cells
white blood cells
of the 2 complaint pathways only the classical can be potentially activated by any antigen/microbe.
t/f
true
ll 3 activation pathways are identical after the activation of:
c2
c4
c3
c5
c3
Antibodies passed in breast milk is an example of
natural passive immunity
artificial passive immunity
artificial active immunity
natural active immunity
natural passive immunity
which t cell type is responsible for controlling an immune response and bringing t to an end when hee=re is no longer circulating antigen?
t regulator/suppressor
T helper
T cytotoxic
T natural killer
regulator/suppressor
In which immune response may signs and symptoms of disease be reduced or absent?
primary
secodnary
secondary
which antibody class is found on the surface or B cells and is responsible for B cell activation?
G
A
E
D
M
D
Which antibody class can cross the placental barrier?
G
M
D
E
A
G
Which antibody is found to surface of mast cells and basophils?
E
M
D
G
A
E
Which antibody class is pentamer
E
M
D
G
A
M
Which B cell daughter cell is responsible for producing against the antigens that activated the parent cells?
plasma cell
memory cell
plasma cell
what self antigen is found on al nucleated body cells
MHC 1
MHC 2
MHc1
Which hypersensitivity involves cytotoxic T cells and can take several ays to develop?
2
1
3
4
4
Our body’s do not provide a suitable environment for some microbes. This statement refers to the non-specific defense category ___.
Species resistance
Antibodies passed to breast-fed infant in breast milk is an example of the general type of immunity: ___ immunity.
natural passive
__ is the self antigen found on all nucleated body cells.
MHC 1
Immunological memory could best be described as the programming or sensitization of __ lymphocytes.
B
increasing WBC proliferation is one of the main purposes of the non-specific defense __.
fever
The only antibody class which can cross the placental barrier is __.
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgG
The antibody binding sites are found on the __ region the antibody molecule.
variable
constant
variable
The tissue repair which is done by supporting tissues and results in scar formation is parenchymal repair.
t/f
false
Signs and symptoms of disease are more likely to occur with a primary immune response.
T/F
true
A microbe with bond BDP factors is the trigger for the __ pathway for complement activation.
lectin
classical
alternate
alternate
the 2 inflammatory mediators not present in the alternate pathway are:
C2a, C4b
C5b, C6
C3a, C5a
C2b, C4a
C2b, C4a
A phagocyte presenting processed antigen to a B lymphocyte is an example of integrated defenses.
t/f
true
Serum IgA (the monomer form) is found on mucosal surfaces and in exocrine gland secretions.
t/f
false
IgG is the antibody class produced first in the __ immune response.
primary
secondary
secondary
A — is a molecule too small to be recognized by the immune system by itself, however, it can be recognized in conjunction with another molecule such as the MHC 2 of an antigen presenting cell.
hapten
While secretory IgA is always present in great milk, IgG can be present if the mother has an active immune response.
T/F
true
A T dependent antigen requires input from a T — cell to activate the B cell.
helper
An __ is a molecule capable of being recognized by the immune system
antigen
which of the following is not a goal of the inflammatory response
produce antibody
isolate the site
attack abc to the site
initiate repair
produce antibody
which of the following is not one of the 3 Rs we discussed in relation to immunity
recover
react
remember
recognize
recover
Which yeast group has symmetrical divison
budding
fission
fission
which fungal division produces asexual conidiospores and sexual ascospores?
deuteromycota
ascomycota
zygomycota
basidiomycota
ascomycota
which fungal division produces asexual sporangiospores?
Zygomycota
Ascomycota
Basidiomycota
Deuteromycota
Zygomycota
Fungal diseases such as pneumocystis pneumonia and meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neofarmans are considered “red flag” diseases for AIDS because people with competent immune systems either rarely get them or get mild cases.
t/f
true
Which of the following fungal pathogens causes vaginitis? ( also causes thrush)
basidiobolus ranum
candida albicans
coccidiodes immits
histoplasma capsulatum
candida albicans
Which of the following tineas affects the groin region?
capitis
corporis
pedis
cruris
cruris
which of the following could be described as a reinforced cell membrane?
contractile vacuole
pellicle
oral groove
cytostome
pellicle
which of the following protozoan pathogens causes african sleeping sickness?
trichomonas vaginalis
trypanosome brucei
trypanosoma cruzi
trichura trichuriae
trypanosoma brucei
the mode of transmission for meningoencephalitis either caused by acanthamoeba spa. or by Naeglaria fowler is the amoeba entering the nasal passages with swimming.
t/f
true
Giardiasis is transmitted by mosquitoes.
t/f
false
T/F: all of the following are transmitted via the fecal/oral route:
Cryptosporidiosis
cyclosporiasis
giardiasis
amoebic dysentery
leishmaniasis
falsem
alaria is caused by 4 species of plasmodium and is transmitted by mosquitoes.
t/f
true
One of the adaptations we see in parasitic helminths is a large egg production capacity.
t/f
true
Some helminths have separate sexes (a male and female) however some may be monoecious meaning that they are hermaphrodites with male and female reproductive organs in the the same individual.
t/f
true
Cestodes (tapeworm) are all dioecious and have complete digestive systems t/f
false
the nematodes are the round worms (aschelminthes) while the cestodes and trematodes are the flat worms (platyhelminthes) t/f
true
Which of the following is not transmitted via fecal/oral route?
dracunculus medinesnsis
ascaris lumbriocoides
enterbius vermicularis
dracunculus medinensis
larva invading the sin from the soil is the mode of transmission for:
wucheria Bancrofti and brugia malayi
ancyclostoma duodenal and nectar americanus
ancylostoma duodena and necatur americanus
the tine which affects the head/scalp is tine __.
captis
the 2 types of asexual fungal spores are sporangiospores and __.
condidiospores
the protozoan organelle which rids the cell of excess water (like a bilge pump in a boat) is the __ __.
contractile vacuole
the hookworms and threadworms have larva that invade the skin rom the __.
soil
platyhelminthes has two divisions the trematodes (flukes) and __. (tape worms)
cestodes
which of the following is not agenuus that causes fungal tineas?
trichophyton
epidermaphyton
microsporum
candida
candida
which of the following the causative agent for pinworms?
enterobius vermicularis
nectar americanus
trichomonas vaginalis
ascaris lumbricoides
enterobius vermicularis
trypanosoma cruzi îs the causative agnet for:
toxoplasmois
malaria
african sleeping sickness
chagas disease
chagas disease
Which fungal division only has asexual spores?
deuteromycota
ascomycota
zygomycota
basidiomycota
aeuteromycota
All protozoans are motile at some stage in their life cycle. t/f
true
Diphylobothrium datum is the causative agent for the __ tapeworms.
fish
the vector that transmit the helminthic infection river blindness (caused by Onchocerca Volulus) is the __ fly.
black
The causative agent for toxoplasmosis is trichomonads vaginalis. t/f
false
Cryptosporidiosis, cyclosporiasis, amoebic dysentery, ascariasis, and pinworms are all transmitted by mosquitoes. t/f
false
Which os the following is a species of plasmodium which causes malaria?
ovale
all of these
vivax
malariae
falciparnum
all
Ascaris larva migrate to the lungs to mature before being swallowed back into digestive tract as adults. t/f
true
which protozoan disease that we discussed is considered a sexually transmitted disease?
giardiasis
trichenosis
toxoplasmosis
trichomoniasis
trichomoniasis
Lymphatic filariasis is transmitted by mosquitoes t/f
true
which protozoan group is motile by flagella?
apicomplexa
mastigophora
sacodina
ciliophora
mastigophoran
some fungi can produce toxins such as ergots and aflatoxins. t/f
ture