Physical diagnosis from study guide

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Last updated 11:11 PM on 8/10/26
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417 Terms

1
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What is the purpose of the physical examination in a patient's history and physical (H&P)?

To determine the general state of patient health.

2
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What system is used in physical examination to gather data leading to a diagnosis and treatment plan?

Problem-oriented system.

3
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What are the typical sections included in a physical examination template?

General appearance, Vital Signs, HEENT (head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat), Neck, Heart, Lung, Abdomen, Extremities, Neuro.

4
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What is the primary goal of conducting a physical examination?

To create a data base.

5
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After reviewing a patient's past medical history (PMH), what is the typical next step in the diagnostic process?

Physical exam, followed by imaging.

6
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How does a data base from physical examination guide patient care?

It guides treatment recommendations.

7
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In what situations should a medical consultation be sought for a patient?

If needed for unclear or complex cases.

8
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What should not be requested during a medical consultation for a patient?

Permission for "clearance".

9
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What should a physical examination always begin with?

Chief complaint (CC) and history of present illness (HPI).

10
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What does ROS stand for in the context of patient assessment?

Review of Systems.

11
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What systems are typically included in a Review of Systems (ROS)?

Constitutional, eyes, ENT, mouth, CV (cardiovascular), respiratory, GI (gastrointestinal), GU (genitourinary), integument, neuro, psycho, endocrine, hematology/lymphatic, allergic/immunologic.

12
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What are the four primary methods used during a physical examination?

Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation.

13
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What types of imaging studies are commonly used in medical assessments?

X-ray, CT, MRI (also known as NMR), PET (positron emission tomography).

14
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What laboratory tests are often part of a physical examination summary?

CBC, coags/INR, basic metabolic panel, comprehensive metabolic panel, glucose levels, HbA1C, drug levels, viral loads.

15
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What are the four vital signs (VS) typically measured?

Temperature, pulse, blood pressure (BP), respiration.

16
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Why is temperature measurement particularly important in dentistry?

As an indication of infection.

17
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What is the definition of hyperpyrexia or hyperthermia?

Body temperature over 41°C or over 106°F.

18
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What is malignant hyperthermia?

A genetic hypermetabolic response of skeletal muscles primarily to halogenated ethers and succinylcholine.

<p>A genetic hypermetabolic response of skeletal muscles primarily to halogenated ethers and succinylcholine.</p>
19
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What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

Dantrolene.

20
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What is the definition of hypothermia?

Body temperature less than 35°C or 95°F.

21
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How is core body temperature most accurately determined?

Rectally.

22
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What does the term "febrile" mean in medical context?

Elevated body temperature.

<p>Elevated body temperature.</p>
23
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What does the term "afebrile" mean in medical context?

Normal body temperature.

<p>Normal body temperature.</p>
24
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What is the physiological mechanism that causes fever?

Macrophages and interleukins affecting the hypothalamus to change temperature.

25
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Where is the radial artery located for palpating pulse?

Lateral wrist.

26
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Where is the brachial artery located for palpating pulse?

Medial antecubital fossa.

27
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Why should you avoid using your thumb when checking a patient's pulse?

Because the thumb has its own pulse.

28
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What is the normal range for pulse rate in beats per minute (bpm)?

60-85 bpm.

29
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What is the definition of tachycardia?

Pulse rate over 100 bpm.

30
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What is the most common cause of tachycardia in a dental setting?

Intravascular injection.

31
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What is the definition of bradycardia?

Pulse rate under 60 bpm.

32
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What are common causes of bradycardia?

Beta blockers and other factors.

33
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How can the regularity of a pulse be assessed?

By radial pulse or EKG.

34
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What does blood pressure measure?

Pressure on arterial walls caused by arterial blood flow.

35
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What does systolic blood pressure represent?

Peak pressure.

<p>Peak pressure.</p>
36
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What does diastolic blood pressure represent?

Trough pressure.

37
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What blood pressure reading indicates a hypertensive crisis?

180/120.

38
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What is the normal respiration rate in breaths per minute (bpm)?

12 to 16 bpm.

<p>12 to 16 bpm.</p>
39
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What is the definition of tachypnea?

Increased respiration rate with unchanged tidal volume (TV).

<p>Increased respiration rate with unchanged tidal volume (TV).</p>
40
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What is the definition of apnea?

No respiration and no tidal volume (TV).

<p>No respiration and no tidal volume (TV).</p>
41
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What is the definition of dyspnea?

Difficult breathing with subjective feeling of suffocation.

<p>Difficult breathing with subjective feeling of suffocation.</p>
42
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What is the typical value for tidal volume (TV) in respiratory physiology?

500 mL (often approximated as 0.5 L).

43
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What is respiratory rate in the context of respiratory physiology?

The number of breaths per minute, typically 12-16.

44
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What is respiratory minute volume?

Tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate.

<p>Tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate.</p>
45
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What is functional residual capacity (FRC) in respiratory physiology?

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation.

46
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What does CBC stand for in laboratory tests?

Complete Blood Count.

47
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What components are typically included in a Complete Blood Count (CBC)?

WBC (white blood cells), Plt (platelets), HgB (hemoglobin), Hct (hematocrit).

48
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Why is white blood cell (WBC) count important in medical assessments?

For evaluating infections and monitoring chemotherapy.

49
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What is the normal range for white blood cell (WBC) count?

4-11 x 10^3 cells/mm³.

<p>4-11 x 10^3 cells/mm³.</p>
50
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What is leukocytosis?

White blood cell count over 11,000, usually due to infection.

<p>White blood cell count over 11,000, usually due to infection.</p>
51
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What is leukopenia?

White blood cell count under 4,000, due to viral infection, aplastic anemia, or medications like chemotherapy, antidepressants, psychotics.

<p>White blood cell count under 4,000, due to viral infection, aplastic anemia, or medications like chemotherapy, antidepressants, psychotics.</p>
52
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What is the normal range for red blood cell (RBC) count?

4.5-6 x 10^6 cells/mm³.

53
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What is polycythemia?

Red blood cell count too high, due to bone marrow response to chronically low oxygen or malignancy.

<p>Red blood cell count too high, due to bone marrow response to chronically low oxygen or malignancy.</p>
54
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What is anemia?

Impaired production, destruction, or fluid loss of red blood cells.

<p>Impaired production, destruction, or fluid loss of red blood cells.</p>
55
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What are the two types of anemia based on cell size?

Microcytic anemia and macrocytic anemia.

<p>Microcytic anemia and macrocytic anemia.</p>
56
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What is hematocrit (Hct) related to in blood?

Oxygen carrying capacity of red blood cells, primarily dependent on the number of RBCs, not hemoglobin per cell.

57
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What does hematocrit (Hct) represent?

Percentage of red blood cell mass in total blood volume.

<p>Percentage of red blood cell mass in total blood volume.</p>
58
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What causes a high hematocrit (Hct) level?

Polycythemia, dehydration, increased altitude, heart disease, etc.

59
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What causes a low hematocrit (Hct) level?

Anemia, hemorrhage, alcohol, drugs, etc.

60
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What is the normal hemoglobin (HgB) range for men?

14-18 g/dL.

61
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What is the normal hematocrit (Hct) range for men?

40-50%.

62
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What is the normal hemoglobin (HgB) range for women?

12-16 g/dL.

63
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What is the normal hematocrit (Hct) range for women?

37-47%.

64
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What is the normal range for platelet (Plt) count?

150-450 x 10^3 per mm³.

65
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What is thrombocytosis?

Platelet count too high, due to bone marrow issues, leukemia, or spleen problems.

66
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What is thrombocytopenia?

Platelet count too low (less than 50,000), due to B12/folic acid deficiencies, diseases like leukemia, liver failure, sepsis, syndromes, or medication-induced.

67
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What does ITP stand for in hematology?

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura.

<p>Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura.</p>
68
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What is the typical lifespan of a platelet?

7-10 days.

69
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What do MCV, MCH, and MCHC help determine in blood tests?

The etiology of anemia.

<p>The etiology of anemia.</p>
70
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What causes microcytic anemia?

Vitamin deficiency, liver disease, or medications.

<p>Vitamin deficiency, liver disease, or medications.</p>
71
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What causes macrocytic anemia?

Iron (Fe) deficiency.

<p>Iron (Fe) deficiency.</p>
72
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What is the normal range for Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)?

80-100 fL, representing average red blood cell volume.

<p>80-100 fL, representing average red blood cell volume.</p>
73
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What is the normal range for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)?

27-31 pg, estimating weight of hemoglobin in average red blood cell.

74
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What is the normal range for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)?

32-36 g/dL, estimating average concentration of hemoglobin in average red blood cell.

75
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What does PT stand for in coagulation tests?

Prothrombin time.

76
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What is the normal range for prothrombin time (PT)?

10-12 seconds.

77
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What does INR stand for in coagulation tests?

International normalized ratio.

78
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What is the normal INR range in the absence of coagulation therapy?

0.8-1.2.

79
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What are the therapeutic INR ranges with coagulation therapy?

Either 2.0-3.0 or 2.5-3.5.

80
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What INR level is required for safe surgery?

Less than 3.0.

81
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What does PTT stand for in coagulation tests?

Partial thromboplastin time.

82
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What is the normal range for partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?

40-100 seconds.

83
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What is bleeding time used for in coagulation assessment?

Screening test for assessing platelet number and function; no benefit if platelets below 60,000.

84
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What factors can increase bleeding time?

Platelets less than 100,000, medications like aspirin or abciximab, chronic liver disease, anemias.

85
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What is the normal value for bleeding time?

2-7 minutes.

86
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Which coagulation tests evaluate the extrinsic pathway?

PT and INR.

87
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Which coagulation tests evaluate the intrinsic pathway?

PTT and aPTT.

88
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What does aPTT measure in coagulation?

Clotting ability of all factors in the intrinsic pathway except factor XIII; partial thromboplastin substituted for platelet phospholipid; monitors effects of Heparin.

<p>Clotting ability of all factors in the intrinsic pathway except factor XIII; partial thromboplastin substituted for platelet phospholipid; monitors effects of Heparin.</p>
89
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What is Lovenox in the context of anticoagulation?

Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin.

<p>Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin.</p>
90
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How does aspirin (ASA) affect platelets?

Irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.

91
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How long does it take for bleeding time to normalize after stopping aspirin (ASA)?

About 2-3 days, but recommended to wait a full 7 days without ASA prior to surgery.

92
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How do NSAIDs affect platelet function?

Cause reversible inhibition of platelet aggregation.

93
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In a metabolic panel, what potassium (K+) level raises concern for cardiac arrest?

Greater than 7 mEq/L.

94
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In a metabolic panel, what potassium (K+) level raises concern for arrhythmias?

Below 3.5 mEq/L, causing weakness, confusion, tetany, ECG changes.

95
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What is the normal range for potassium (K+) in a metabolic panel?

3.5-5.1 mEq/L.

96
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What does BUN stand for in a metabolic panel?

Blood urea nitrogen.

97
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What does BUN indicate in a metabolic panel?

Renal health, affected by changes in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and fluid volume.

98
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What is the normal range for BUN in a metabolic panel?

7-18 mg/dL.

99
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What does Cr stand for in a metabolic panel?

Creatinine.

100
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What does creatinine (Cr) indicate in a metabolic panel?

Renal health; it is a byproduct of muscle metabolism.