y5 bio: cluster 5 (cell and nuclear division + inheritance)

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Last updated 1:23 PM on 8/29/26
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29 Terms

1
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what is the main role of mitosis in eukaryotes?

to produce two genetically identical diploid daughter nuclei for cell proliferation, growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction.

2
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what occurs during the S-phase of interphase prior to mitosis or meiosis?

DNA replication occurs, producing identical sister chromatids held together at the centromere.

3
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what are the four phases of mitosis in sequential order?

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

4
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what happens during prophase of mitosis?

chromatin condenses into distinct chromosomes, spindle microtubules form, and the nuclear membrane breaks down.

5
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what is the role of microtubules and kinetochores during metaphase?

kinetochores attach chromosomes to spindle microtubules at the centromere, aligning chromosomes along the cell equator.

6
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what occurs during anaphase of mitosis?

spindle fibers shorten, pulling separated sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell.

7
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how does cytokinesis differ between animal and plant cells?

animal cells divide via an actin ring forming a cleavage furrow, whereas plant cells construct a cell plate formed by fusing Golgi vesicles.

8
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what is unequal cytokinesis and where does it occur in human biology?

unequal distribution of cytoplasm resulting in one large cell and smaller polar bodies, occurring during human oogenesis.

9
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how do you calculate the mitotic index of a tissue micrograph?

divide the number of cells displaying visible chromosomes (in mitosis) by the total number of observed cells.

10
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what is the function of cyclins in cell cycle regulation?

cyclins bind to cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) to activate them, triggering specific events at cell cycle checkpoints (G1, G2, and M).

11
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how do proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor gene mutations lead to cancer development?

mutated proto-oncogenes become overactive oncogenes (stimulating division), while mutated tumor suppressor genes lose cell cycle control, leading to uncontrolled proliferation.

12
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what is the difference between a primary tumor, secondary tumor, and metastasis?

a primary tumor forms at the original site, metastasis is the spread of cancer cells through blood/lymph, forming secondary tumors elsewhere.

13
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why is meiosis I referred to as a reduction division?

it reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n) by separating homologous chromosomes.

14
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what is a bivalent (tetrid) and when does it form?

a pair of homologous chromosomes formed during prophase I of meiosis.

15
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what occurs during crossing over in prophase I and what is its consequence?

non-sister chromatids exchange DNA segments at chiasmata, producing recombinant chromatids and increasing genetic variation.

16
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how does independent assortment generate genetic diversity in meiosis?

homologous chromosome pairs align randomly at the metaphase plate in metaphase I, creating 2^n possible gamete combinations.

17
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what is non-disjunction and what condition can it cause?

the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during anaphase I or II, causing aneuploidy such as trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome) and 21 (Down syndrome).

18
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what is an allele?

a specific alternative sequence/form of a gene at a particular chromosomal locus.

19
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what is the difference between phenotype and genotype?

genotype is the specific allele combination of an organism, while phenotype is the observable physical or biochemical trait.

20
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what pattern of inheritance is demonstrated by ABO blood groups?

codominance between Ia and Ib alleles, both being completely dominant over the recessive I allele.

21
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why do sex-linked recessive traits (like hemophilia) affect males more frequently than females?

males are hemizygous (XY) and need only one copy of the recessive allele on the X chromosome to express the condition.

22
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what are linked genes?

genes located close together on the same chromosome that do not assort independently during meiosis.

23
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how can you identify recombinant offspring in a dihybrid cross involving linked genes?

recombinants display combination phenotypes different from either parent and occur in much lower frequencies than parental types.

24
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what phenotypic ratio is expected in a test cross of a dihybrid heterozygote with unlinked genes vs linked genes?

unlinked genes yield a 1:1:1:1 ratio, whereas linked genes produce a higher proportion of parental phenotypes and fewer recombinants, at 9:3:3:1 ratio.

25
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what is polygenic inheritance and what type of variation does it produce?

a single trait controlled by two or more unlinked additive genes, resulting in continuous variation (e.g., human height or skin color).

26
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how does the environment influence polygenic phenotypes?

environmental factors (e.g., nutrition, sun exposure) act on continuous phenotypic variation, smoothing out discrete genetic categories.

27
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what is the purpose of a chi-squared test in genetics?

to determine whether observed offspring phenotypic counts differ significantly from expected Mendelian inheritance ratios.

28
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how do you calculate degrees of freedom (df) for a genetic chi-squared test?

df = n - 1, where n is the total number of phenotypic categories being compared.

29
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what does it mean if a calculated x^2 value is greater than the critical value at p = 0.05?

the difference between observed and expected results is statistically significant, rejecting the null hypothesis (suggesting gene linkage or selection).