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Which cells are the first line of defense in the innate immune system?
Epithelial barriers, phagocytes, NK cells, complement proteins
Which immune response develops over days and involves lymphocytes?
Adaptive immunity
Which branch of adaptive immunity targets intracellular microbes?
Cell-mediated immunity
Which branch of adaptive immunity targets extracellular microbes?
Humoral immunity
Which cells produce antibodies?
B cells (plasma cells)
What is the main function of helper T cells?
Activate macrophages, B cells, and other immune cells via cytokines
What is the main function of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)?
Kill infected or altered host cells
Which molecules present antigens to T cells?
MHC molecules
Which MHC class presents to CD8+ T cells?
MHC class I
Which MHC class presents to CD4+ T cells?
MHC class II
Which cytokine promotes Th1 differentiation?
IL-12
Which cytokine promotes Th2 differentiation?
IL-4
Which cytokine promotes Th17 differentiation?
IL-6, TGF-β
Which cytokine activates macrophages?
IFN-γ
Which cytokine is involved in allergy and eosinophil activation?
IL-5
Which antibody isotype is most effective at complement activation?
IgM
Which antibody isotype is most abundant in serum?
IgG
Which antibody isotype is most abundant in mucosal secretions?
IgA
Which antibody mediates allergic responses and parasite defense?
IgE
Which antibody isotype is produced first during a primary immune response?
IgM
What process leads to antibodies with higher binding affinity over time?
Affinity maturation
What process changes antibody isotype without altering antigen specificity?
Isotype class switching
Where does affinity maturation and isotype switching occur?
Germinal centers in secondary lymphoid organs
Which enzyme is critical for isotype switching?
AID (Activation-Induced cytidine Deaminase)
What is a polyclonal antibody response?
Response involving multiple B cell clones producing different antibodies
What is a monoclonal antibody response?
Response from one B cell clone producing identical antibodies
Which immune cells have Fcγ receptors for IgG?
Macrophages, neutrophils, NK cells, B cells
What happens when immune complexes bind Fc receptors on phagocytes?
Phagocytosis and destruction of the complex
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE?
Type I hypersensitivity
Which antiviral is a guanosine analog requiring phosphorylation by viral thymidine kinase?
Acyclovir
Which antiviral is the oral prodrug of acyclovir?
Valacyclovir
Which antiviral is effective against HSV and VZV but not CMV?
Acyclovir
Which antiviral is used for ganciclovir-resistant CMV and does not require phosphorylation?
Foscarnet
Which antiviral is a pyrophosphate analog?
Foscarnet
Which antiviral is a guanosine analog effective for CMV retinitis?
Ganciclovir
Which oral prodrug of ganciclovir has better bioavailability?
Valganciclovir
Which drug is a DNA polymerase inhibitor used for HSV and VZV with less frequent dosing?
Famciclovir
Which antiviral is used topically for HSV lesions?
Penciclovir
Which PK parameter describes the theoretical volume that would contain the drug at the same concentration as in plasma?
Volume of distribution (Vd)
What is the equation for Vd?
Amount of drug in the body / plasma drug concentration
Which PK parameter measures the rate of drug elimination?
Clearance (CL)
What is the equation for clearance?
Rate of elimination / plasma concentration
What is the equation for half-life (t½)?
(0.693 × Vd) / CL
What is bioavailability (F)?
Fraction of administered drug reaching systemic circulation unchanged
What is the main determinant of oral drug bioavailability?
First-pass metabolism
Which phase of metabolism involves oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis?
Phase I metabolism
Which enzyme family is responsible for most Phase I metabolism?
Cytochrome P450 enzymes
Which phase of metabolism involves conjugation to make drugs more water-soluble?
Phase II metabolism
Name three Phase II conjugation reactions.
Glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation
Which G protein pathway activates adenylyl cyclase?
Gs
Which G protein pathway inhibits adenylyl cyclase?
Gi
Which G protein pathway activates phospholipase C?
Gq
Which second messenger is increased by Gs activation?
cAMP
Which second messengers are increased by Gq activation?
IP₃ and DAG
Which G protein signaling pathway increases intracellular calcium?
Gq via IP₃
Which receptor type uses intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity?
Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)
Which receptor signaling pathway involves JAK/STAT?
Cytokine receptors without intrinsic kinase activity
What is the ligand for nicotinic acetylcholine receptors?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
What is the ligand for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Which sensory receptor detects vibration and is rapidly adapting?
Pacinian corpuscle
Which sensory receptor detects sustained pressure and skin stretch?
Ruffini endings
Which sensory receptor detects light touch and texture, and is slowly adapting?
Merkel cells
Which sensory receptor detects fine touch in hairless skin and is rapidly adapting?
Meissner’s corpuscles
Which pathway carries fine touch, vibration, and proprioception?
Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
Which pathway carries pain and temperature sensation?
Spinothalamic tract
Where do first-order neurons of the dorsal column pathway synapse?
Nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus in the medulla
Where do second-order neurons of the dorsal column pathway decussate?
Medial lemniscus in the medulla
Where do spinothalamic tract neurons decussate?
Within 1–2 segments in the anterior white commissure of the spinal cord
Which dermatome corresponds to the thumb?
C6
Which dermatome corresponds to the middle finger?
C7
Which dermatome corresponds to the little finger?
C8
Which dermatome corresponds to the nipple line?
T4
Which dermatome corresponds to the umbilicus?
T10
What is the neurotransmitter released by most sensory afferent neurons?
Glutamate
Which type of nerve fiber transmits sharp pain?
A-delta fibers
Which type of nerve fiber transmits dull, aching pain?
C fibers