urinary care application

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Last updated 12:58 AM on 9/9/26
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100 Terms

1
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What is the term for painful or difficult urination?

Dysuria

2
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Voiding more often than usual is defined as urinary _____.

Frequency

3
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What is the term for frequent voiding during the night?

Nocturia

4
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What clinical term describes involuntary voiding in bed, commonly known as bed wetting?

Enuresis

5
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An increase in the expected amount of urine a person excretes over a period is called _____.

Polyuria

6
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What term refers to a decrease in the expected amount of urine a person secretes and excretes?

Oliguria

7
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8
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What is the medical term for the total absence of urine?

Anuria

9
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The stopping of urination is known as urinary _____.

Suppression

10
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The inability to fully empty the bladder is defined as urinary _____.

Retention

11
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Normal human urine should be clear or transparent and possess a characteristic _____ odor.

Aromatic

12
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At what volume range in the bladder do stretch receptors typically send a signal to the brain to indicate the need to urinate in an adult?

250 to 450 mL

13
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What is the normal color of stool, primarily due to the presence of bile?

Yellowish-brown

14
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Gray or clay-colored stool usually indicates that _____ is missing, often a sign of gallbladder disease.

Bile

15
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What condition is suggested by the presence of dark, black, or tarry stools containing partially digested blood?

Melena

16
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Bright red blood in the stool typically indicates bleeding in which area of the body?

Rectal or anal area

17
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Stool that is yellow or green in color may suggest the presence of _____.

Infection

18
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What type of enema is specifically designed to remove feces from the bowel?

Cleansing enema

19
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Which type of enema acts to soften and lubricate hard stool?

Oil-retention enema

20
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What is the purpose of a carminative enema?

To relieve gas or flatulence.

21
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A return-flow enema is primarily used to help relieve gas and abdominal _____.

Distention

22
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What is the primary function of an anthelmintic enema?

To destroy intestinal parasites.

23
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When administering an enema, in what position should the client be placed?

Left Sims position

24
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During the digital removal of feces, what finger motion should be used to break up the stool?

Scissor motion

25
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What is the primary risk associated with the digital removal of feces due to potential vagus nerve stimulation?

Bradycardia

26
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Vomitus with a 'coffee ground' appearance is a sign of bleeding in the _____.

Lower digestive tract

27
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In body mechanics, where is the center of gravity located in the human body?

Pelvic area

28
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What serves as the base of support for the human body during standing and movement?

The feet

29
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What type of exercise involves contracting a specific muscle group while holding a static position?

Isometric exercise

30
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When transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, at what angle should the chair be positioned to the bed?

45 degrees

31
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On which side should the nurse position the chair when transferring a patient with one-sided weakness?

The patient's strong side.

32
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Which type of crutch has a cuff that fits around the patient's forearm?

Lofstrand crutch

33
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Physical restraints are mechanical devices that limit a patient's movement or access to their _____.

Body

34
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How often should a provider monitor a patient in non-violent restraints?

At least every 2 hours.

35
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How frequently must a patient in violent restraints be monitored?

Every 15 minutes.

36
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Which position involves the patient lying on their back with legs extended or slightly bent?

Supine

37
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Describe the Sims position.

Side lying (left side) with the upper knee flexed and the bottom arm behind the body.

38
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Which position is used specifically for a patient sitting full upright, often using a bedside table for support?

Orthopneic

39
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In the Trendelenburg position, the patient's head is _____ than their feet.

Lower

40
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41
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What cardiovascular complication involves a drop in blood pressure when a patient moves from a lying to a standing position?

Orthostatic hypotension

42
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What metabolic state occurs during immobility when protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis?

Negative nitrogen balance

43
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How does immobility affect the elimination system regarding urine flow?

It causes urinary stasis

44
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Stasis of secretions in the lungs during immobility increases the risk for _____.

Hypostatic pneumonia

45
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To reduce the risk of thrombus development in an immobile patient, what simple leg exercises should be encouraged?

Ankle pumps and foot circles.

46
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What type of urinary diversion involves a surgeon forming a reservoir from the ileum that the client empties via a catheter?

Kock pouch (continent ileal bladder conduit)

47
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Which type of urinary incontinence is characterized by the loss of small amounts of urine during laughing, sneezing, or lifting?

Stress incontinence

48
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What type of incontinence occurs when a person is unable to reach the bathroom in time due to an overactive detrusor muscle?

Urge incontinence

49
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Reflex incontinence is often caused by damage to the spinal cord above which level?

The sacral micturition center.

50
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Incontinence caused by factors outside the urinary tract, such as cognitive or mobility impairments, is called _____ incontinence.

Functional

51
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What bladder analgesic is known to turn the client's urine orange?

Phenazopyridine

52
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Before a fecal occult blood (guaiac) test, for how many days should the client avoid consuming red meat?

3 days

53
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What color indicates a positive result on a guaiac fecal occult blood test?

Blue

54
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When instructing a client on collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, what must they do first?

Clean the urethral meatus.

55
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To prevent backflow and infection, where should a urinary drainage bag always be placed in relation to the bladder?

Below the level of the bladder.

56
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How often should a nurse reposition a client sitting in a chair to prevent pressure injuries?

Every 15 minutes.

57
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When using a cane, on which side of the body should the client hold the device?

The uninjured (strong) side.

58
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What is the purpose of Sequential Compression Devices (SCDs) or elastic stockings?

To promote venous return.

59
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The Valsalva maneuver increases the workload of the _____ and should be avoided.

Heart

60
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What is the recommended daily fluid intake for females to maintain healthy elimination?

2.7 L/day

61
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What is the recommended daily fluid intake for males to maintain healthy elimination?

3.7 L/day

62
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During bladder retraining, the nurse should gradually _____ the time between voiding intervals.

Increase

63
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Which diagnostic test uses high-frequency sound waves to view gross renal structures?

Renal ultrasound

64
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What procedure involves the use of a lighted instrument to visualize, treat, and obtain specimens from the bladder and urethra?

Cystoscopy

65
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What condition is characterized by a bowel pattern of difficult and infrequent evacuation of hard, dry feces?

Constipation

66
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Which position is used for a lumbar puncture to expose the back?

Lying on the right side with knees and head flexed sharply.

67
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In the lithotomy position, the client is supine with legs separated and feet in _____.

Stirrups

68
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What is the term for the inability to hold urine?

Incontinence

69
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Normal urine output for an adult relates to person size, bladder condition, and _____ level.

Hydration

70
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Yellowish or greenish vomitus indicates that it contains _____.

Bile

71
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A nurse performing _____ ROM moves the client's joints because the client is unable to move them independently.

Passive

72
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Which type of walker is often recommended for long-term use because it encourages the client to stand erect?

Reverse walker

73
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When identifying a fall risk, the nurse should check for orthostatic _____.

Hypotension

74
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What should be kept within reach for a patient to prevent falls when they need assistance?

The call light

75
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What integumentary risk is aggravated by metabolic changes and increased pressure on the skin during immobility?

Pressure injury

76
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To reduce the risk of thrombus, how often should a nurse encourage an immobile client to perform antiembolic exercises?

Every 1 to 2 hours

77
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What is the first step a nurse should take if a walking client feels faint?

Help them lean against a wall and bend over.

78
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What are the normal colors of urine?

Pale yellow to amber.

79
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What does cloudy urine indicate?

Possible infection (e.g., UTI).

80
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What is the average daily urine output for an adult?

1,500–2,000 mL.

81
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Define dysuria.

Painful or difficult urination.

82
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What does black/tarry stool (melena) indicate?

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., stomach ulcers).

83
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What does red stool (hematochezia) indicate?

Lower gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., hemorrhoids, colon cancer).

84
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What is the most common cause of constipation?

Low fiber intake, dehydration, or lack of physical activity.

85
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What is fecal impaction, and how is it treated?

A hardened stool stuck in the rectum. Treated with manual removal, enemas, or laxatives.

86
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What is the purpose of a cleansing enema?

To relieve constipation or clear the bowel before surgery.

87
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What position should a patient be in for an enema?

Sims’ position (left side-lying with right knee flexed).

88
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What are the risks of digital removal of feces?

Vagal stimulation (bradycardia), rectal trauma, or bleeding.

89
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What does coffee-ground vomitus indicate?

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., stomach ulcers).

90
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What is the center of gravity?

The point where an object’s weight is concentrated (e.g., the pelvis for humans).

91
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What is the base of support?

The area beneath an object or person that provides stability (e.g., feet placement).

92
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What are the three types of range of motion (ROM) exercises?

Active, passive, and active-assistive.

93
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How do you transfer a patient from bed to wheelchair safely?

  1. Lock the wheelchair and bed.

  2. Assist the patient to a sitting position.

  3. Use a gait belt if needed.

  4. Help the patient pivot and sit in the wheelchair.


94
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What is the correct gait for crutches when descending stairs?

Crutches and the affected leg move first, followed by the strong leg.

95
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How do you measure crutch height?

Adjust so the top of the crutch is 2–3 finger-widths below the armpit when standing upright.

Patient Safety and Restraints

96
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What are the legal considerations for using restraints?

Restraints require a doctor’s order, must be time-limited, and require regular assessment.

97
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What is the first intervention for a patient at high fall risk?

Place the patient in a room near the nurses’ station and use bed alarms.

98
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What are the types of restraints?

Physical (e.g., wrist restraints), chemical (e.g., sedatives), and environmental (e.g., locked doors).

99
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What is Trendelenburg position, and when is it used?

The patient lies with the head lower than the feet. Used for shock or low blood pressure.

100
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What is Sims’ position, and when is it used?

The patient lies on their left side with the right knee flexed. Used for enemas, rectal exams, or unconscious patients.