Comprehensive Urology and Bowel Management: Bedpans, Catheters, and Incontinence

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Last updated 5:47 PM on 5/5/26
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99 Terms

1
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What is a regular bedpan used for?

For patients who can lift their hips.

2
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What is a fracture bedpan used for?

For patients who cannot lift their hips due to fractures or post-operative conditions.

3
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What dietary factors affect bowel elimination?

Fiber content, fluid intake, gas-producing foods, and food intolerances.

4
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Name a medication that can affect bowel elimination.

Laxatives, opioids, antibiotics, anticholinergics, iron, or NSAIDs.

5
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How does activity level influence bowel elimination?

Immobility slows peristalsis.

6
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What psychological factors can affect bowel elimination?

Stress, anxiety, and depression.

7
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What medical conditions can impact bowel elimination?

Metabolic disorders, neurological conditions, and hemorrhoids.

8
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What is a fecal occult test used for?

To detect microscopic blood in stool, screening for colon cancer, polyps, ulcers, or GI bleeds.

9
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What are the expected results of a fecal occult test?

Positive (blood) or negative (no blood).

10
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What preparation is needed for a colonoscopy?

Clear liquid diet for 1-3 days, avoid red/purple drinks, and NPO several hours before the procedure.

11
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What type of drainage is expected from an ileostomy?

Frequent, liquid drainage with minimal odor.

12
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What is the appearance of stool from a sigmoid colostomy?

Solid, formed stool with controllable odor.

13
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What are common causes of constipation?

Irregular bowel habits, low-fiber/high-fat diet, low fluid intake, medications (opioids), and immobility.

14
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What interventions can help relieve constipation?

Increase fiber intake (20-35g daily), increase fluids, encourage regular exercise, and establish routine toileting times.

15
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What are the signs of fecal impaction?

Continuous oozing of liquid stool with no normal stool and inability to pass despite urges.

16
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What is a cleansing enema used for?

To remove feces using solutions like tap water, normal saline, or soapsuds.

17
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What is the purpose of a retention enema?

To hold the solution for 30+ minutes for oil retention or medicated purposes.

18
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What are cathartics?

Strong laxatives that stimulate bowel movements by changing GI transit time.

19
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What caution should be taken with laxative use?

Laxative misuse can cause rebound constipation and should not be used routinely without addressing underlying causes.

20
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What is the function of a Salem-sump tube?

Best for relieving bowel obstruction or stomach pumping.

21
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What are the signs of stoma complications?

Pale/dusky color indicates decreased blood supply; dark purple/black indicates necrosis.

22
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What is the normal color and texture of a healthy stoma?

Dark pink to red color, moist surface, warm to touch, with small blood vessels.

23
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What is the purpose of an indwelling (Foley) catheter?

Continuous bladder drainage.

24
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How far should a Foley catheter be inserted in males?

7-9 inches until urine flows, then advance to bifurcation before inflation.

25
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How far should a Foley catheter be inserted in females?

2-3 inches until urine flows, then advance 1-2 more inches before inflation.

26
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What should be done with the catheter bag?

Keep it below the bladder and empty it when ⅔ full.

27
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What is the purpose of an intermittent (straight) catheter?

One-time bladder emptying, removed immediately.

28
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What does no urine return indicate during catheter insertion?

The catheter may not be in the bladder and needs to be advanced further.

29
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What does resistance during catheter insertion indicate?

It may indicate obstruction; do not force the catheter.

30
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What does blood in urine during catheter use indicate?

Trauma to the urethra or bladder.

31
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What should be done if balloon inflation occurs in the urethra?

Deflate immediately as it causes severe pain.

32
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What is a common complication associated with catheters?

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI).

33
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What are the prevention strategies for CAUTI?

Avoid unnecessary catheterization, maintain sterile technique, and perform hand hygiene.

34
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What is the normal urine output per day?

1400 mL per day.

35
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What are the types of urinary diversions?

Incontinent diversions, continent cutaneous diversions, and orthotopic neobladder.

36
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What is stress incontinence?

Loss of urine during activities such as coughing, sneezing, or laughing.

37
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What is urge incontinence?

A sudden urge to void followed by rapid bladder contraction.

38
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What is mixed incontinence?

A combination of both stress and urge incontinence.

39
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What is overflow incontinence?

Inability to empty the bladder completely, resulting in constant dribbling.

40
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What are acute causes of urinary incontinence?

Extended bed rest, medications, mental confusion, pregnancy, stool impaction, UTIs.

41
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What are chronic causes of urinary incontinence?

Bladder cancer, neurologic conditions, pelvic prolapse, pelvic floor muscle damage, spinal injury.

42
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What does a urinalysis indicate if the urine is deep amber/dark yellow?

Concentrated urine from dehydration or low fluid intake.

43
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What does cloudy urine indicate?

Presence of bacteria, cells, or high solute concentration.

44
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What is the purpose of KUB imaging?

X-ray study of kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra to identify stones or abnormalities.

45
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What is the purpose of cystoscopy?

Direct visualization of the bladder and urethra to determine causes of urinary issues.

46
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What is the normal pH range of urine?

4.6 to 8.0, normally acidic.

47
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What is anuria?

Failure of kidneys to produce/excrete urine (less than 50-100 mL in 24 hrs).

48
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What is oliguria?

Reduced urine volume (adults <500 mL/day).

49
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What is polyuria?

Excessive urine production and excretion.

50
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What is nocturia?

Excessive urination at night.

51
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What is the primary concern when a patient has an intact GI tract but cannot meet nutritional needs orally?

The patient may require enteral feeding or TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition).

52
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What position should a patient be in to prevent aspiration during feeding?

The head of the bed should be elevated at least 30 degrees.

53
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How can tube displacement be prevented in enteral feeding?

By verifying placement via x-ray and checking external length regularly.

54
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What is a key prevention strategy for tube occlusion?

Flushing the tube before and after medications.

55
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What is refeeding syndrome and how can it be prevented?

Refeeding syndrome is a dangerous condition that can occur when feeding is restarted; it can be prevented by gradually increasing feeding rates and monitoring electrolytes.

56
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What are the major complications associated with Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)?

Infection, hyperglycemia, refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, fluid overload, air embolism, and catheter occlusion.

57
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What dietary recommendations should be followed for infants?

Breastfeeding is recommended for fat and essential fatty acids; make half the plate fruits and vegetables.

58
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What nutritional needs increase during childhood and adolescence?

Calorie, protein, calcium, and iron needs increase.

59
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What changes occur in nutritional needs for older adults?

Decreased calorie needs due to lower lean body mass and increased fat mass, while protein, vitamin, and mineral needs may remain the same or increase.

60
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What factors can affect wound healing?

Nutritional status, age, chronic illness, and infection.

61
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What are the characteristics of serous drainage?

Clear-like plasma.

62
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What does purulent drainage indicate?

It indicates infection and is thick, yellow, pale green, or white.

63
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What are the stages of pressure ulcers?

Stage 1: intact skin with non-blanchable redness; Stage 2: shallow open ulcer; Stage 3: subcutaneous fat visible; Stage 4: exposed bone, tendon, or muscle; Unstageable: full-thickness tissue loss with obscured base.

64
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What is the purpose of the Braden Scale?

To identify patients at risk for compromised skin integrity and pressure injury development.

65
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What nutrients are essential for wound healing?

Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A, B Vitamins, and hydration.

66
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What is the goal of cleaning methods in wound care?

To remove debris and contaminants while minimizing trauma to healing tissue.

67
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What is the difference between surgical asepsis and medical asepsis?

Surgical asepsis is the complete elimination of microorganisms, while medical asepsis involves standard precautions to reduce the risk of infection.

68
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What should be monitored to prevent aspiration in patients at risk?

Signs of aspiration such as coughing and wheezing, and assess the gag reflex before giving foods or fluids.

69
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What dietary restrictions are recommended for patients with heart failure?

2 g sodium/day and fluid restrictions.

70
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What is the recommended sodium intake for patients on hemodialysis?

2-4 g sodium/day.

71
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What should be done to ensure proper tube insertion for NG feeding?

Measure tube length, lubricate the tip, and insert through the nostril while the patient swallows.

72
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What is the significance of monitoring bumper tension in enteral feeding?

To check for pressure injury at the site.

73
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What are some signs of infection in wound healing?

Redness, swelling, drainage, elevated temperature, increased pulse and respiratory rate, and rising blood pressure.

74
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What should be done if a feeding tube is displaced?

Do not reposition or replace without a healthcare provider's order.

75
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What is the importance of hydration in wound healing?

Hydration is essential for tissue perfusion, nutrient transport, and waste removal.

76
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What is a common characteristic of serosanguineous drainage?

It is pink in color, indicating a mix of serous and sanguineous drainage.

77
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What is the role of Vitamin A in wound healing?

It supports tissue integrity and immune function.

78
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What group of disorders causes progressive memory loss and cognitive decline?

Dementia

79
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What mood disorder is characterized by persistent unhappiness and hopelessness?

Depression

80
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What is the onset and reversibility of delirium?

Rapid onset and reversible with treatment

81
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What are common symptoms of depression in older adults?

Loss of interest, decreased self-esteem, changes in sleep or eating

82
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What are the characteristics of Alzheimer's disease?

Severe memory problems, progressive cognitive function decline, pathologic brain changes

83
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What is delirium?

A reversible state of acute confusion

84
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What are common myths about aging?

Cognitive decline is inevitable, all older adults are the same, older adults can't stay physically active, depression is normal in aging

85
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What is sensory overload?

Excessive sensory stimuli that the brain cannot effectively process

86
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What causes sensory deprivation?

Inadequate quality or quantity of sensory stimulation

87
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What are the symptoms of sensory deprivation?

Confusion, disorientation, depression, anxiety, hallucinations

88
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What interventions can help with sensory deprivation?

Increase meaningful sensory input, encourage family visits/socialization, provide stimulating activities

89
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What are the physiological changes in older adults regarding taste and smell?

Taste and smell decline, which may lead to poor nutritional status

90
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What happens to skin and hair as people age?

Hair turns grey due to loss of melanin; skin becomes thinner, less elastic, drier, and wrinkled

91
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What are the cognitive alterations that occur with aging?

Types include delirium, dementia, and depression

92
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What is the sleep cycle duration?

Approximately 90 minutes, alternating between NREM and REM sleep

93
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What is NREM sleep?

Non-rapid eye movement sleep characterized by slow brain waves, decreased heart rate, and lower blood pressure

94
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What is REM sleep?

Rapid eye movement sleep characterized by dreaming and altered vital signs

95
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What are common sleep disorders?

Insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy, sleep deprivation, sleep terrors, nightmares

96
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What is sleep hygiene?

Practices and habits that promote quality sleep and daytime alertness

97
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What are the symptoms of sleep apnea?

Loud snoring, gasping for air, frequent awakenings, daytime sleepiness

98
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What can cause sleep deprivation?

Inadequate sleep leading to fatigue, headache, nausea, irritability, decreased concentration

99
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What triggers sleep terrors?

May be triggered by fever, lack of sleep, alcohol, or emotional stress