PCB 3063 Lecture 4 Genetic Code and Translation

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Last updated 6:52 PM on 6/19/26
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120 Terms

1
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Where does eukaryotic mRNA modification occur before leaving the nucleus?

In the nucleus.

2
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What is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA during processing?

A 5' cap.

3
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When is the 5' cap added to the growing mRNA?

Very soon after the start of transcription.

4
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What specific nucleotide is added to the absolute 5' end of mRNA?

A guanine.

5
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What type of linkage connects the 5' cap to the first nucleotide?

A 5'-5' linkage.

6
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How does a 5'-5' linkage differ from normal RNA linkages?

Normal linkages are 5'-3' phosphodiester bonds.

7
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What chemical modification happens to the 5' guanine and first few nucleotides?

They are methylated.

8
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What proteins attach to the completed 5' cap?

Cap-binding proteins.

9
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What is one function of cap-binding proteins regarding mRNA protection?

They protect mRNA from RNases in the cytoplasm.

10
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How do cap-binding proteins assist in translation initiation?

They indirectly allow mRNA to attach to the small ribosomal subunit.

11
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What is added to the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNA during processing?

A poly-A tail.

12
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Why must the 3' end of mRNA be cut before adding the poly-A tail?

Most genes are transcribed beyond the coding sequence.

13
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Which enzyme detects the consensus sequence near the 3' end of mRNA?

Poly(A) polymerase.

14
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What is the consensus sequence recognized by poly(A) polymerase?

AAUAAA.

15
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Where does poly(A) polymerase cut the mRNA relative to the consensus sequence?

Approximately 25 nucleotides downstream.

16
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How many adenine nucleotides does poly(A) polymerase add to the cut end?

50 to 200 adenines.

17
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What is one protective function of the poly-A tail?

It protects the 3' end of mRNA from RNases.

18
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How does the length of the poly-A tail affect eukaryotic mRNA?

Longer tails increase mRNA lifespan and stability.

19
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How does the poly-A tail assist in initiating translation?

It helps in mRNA-ribosome binding.

20
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What are the noncoding sequences in eukaryotic genes called?

Introns.

21
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What are the coding sequences of eukaryotic genes called?

Exons.

22
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What are two possible evolutionary origins of introns?

Retroviruses, transposons, or mutated former exons.

23
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How does intron abundance compare between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Introns are common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

24
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What is the relationship between organism complexity and intron abundance?

More complex organisms generally have more complex and abundant introns.

25
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True or False: All eukaryotic genes contain the same number of introns.

False. Intron abundance and size vary per gene.

26
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What are the two major classifications of introns based on removal mechanism?

Group I/II self-splicing introns and nuclear pre-mRNA introns.

27
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Where are Group I and Group II introns typically found?

In rRNA genes and a few bacterial genes.

28
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What molecule is used by Group I and II introns to excise themselves?

A molecule of guanosine.

29
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Why are nuclear pre-mRNA introns considered more complex than Group I/II?

They require a spliceosome complex for removal.

30
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What features at intron-exon borders attract the spliceosome?

Consensus sequences.

31
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What process allows one gene to yield multiple different proteins?

Alternative splicing.

32
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What are different protein products generated from the same gene called?

Isoforms.

33
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How does the number of exons in a gene affect potential isoforms?

More exons allow for more potential isoforms.

34
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How many exons and isoforms does the tropomyosin gene have?

14 exons yielding 10 different isoforms.

35
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What does alternative splicing disprove about the "one gene, one protein" hypothesis?

It shows that one gene can code for multiple proteins.

36
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What three features must a processed eukaryotic mRNA have to exit the nucleus?

A 5' cap, a poly-A tail, and no introns.

37
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Through what structures does processed mRNA exit the nucleus?

Nuclear pore complexes.

38
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What specific protein complexes associate with processed mRNA to guide nuclear export?

Messenger ribonucleoproteins (mRNPs).

39
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With which nuclear pore complex do mRNPs interact during export?

The mRNA exporter.

40
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What happens to eukaryotic mRNAs that fail to undergo splicing?

They are retained in the nucleus and not translated.

41
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Which disease is associated with a splicing failure in beta-hemoglobin mRNA?

Thalassemia.

42
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What is the first stage of going from DNA instructions to a protein?

Transcription.

43
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What molecule is synthesized as a complementary copy of DNA during transcription?

Messenger RNA (mRNA).

44
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What is the second stage of gene expression in eukaryotes?

mRNA editing and export.

45
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What is the final stage where ribosomes read mRNA to make proteins?

Translation.

46
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Where does translation take place within the cell?

In the cytoplasm.

47
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What is the set of rules by which ribosomes read mRNA called?

The genetic code.

48
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Why is the genetic code considered to be located in mRNA, not DNA?

Ribosomes read mRNA directly; they do not interact with DNA.

49
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What four ribonucleotide letters make up the alphabet of mRNA?

A, U, C, and G.

50
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In what direction and manner do ribosomes read the mRNA nucleotides?

Linearly, one after another, without skipping.

51
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Who used point mutations to show that ribosomes read nucleotides in groups of three?

Francis Crick and colleagues.

52
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What happens to the reading frame if one nucleotide is inserted?

It shifts completely, altering all subsequent amino acids.

53
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What happens to the reading frame if two nucleotides are inserted?

It shifts completely, altering subsequent amino acids.

54
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What happens to the reading frame if three nucleotides are inserted?

The reading frame is restored after the insertion site.

55
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Why do three-nucleotide insertions restore the reading frame?

Because codons are read in groups of three.

56
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If the genetic code used single-letter words, how many codons would exist?

4.

57
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If the genetic code used two-letter words, how many codons would exist?

16.

58
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Why is a two-letter codon system insufficient for translation?

It only yields 16 codons, but there are 20 amino acids.

59
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How many possible codons exist in a three-letter codon system?

64.

60
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What is the term for a group of three ribonucleotides in mRNA?

A codon.

61
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How are codons spaced along an mRNA strand?

They are continuous with no spaces or breaks.

62
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What does it mean that the genetic code is unambiguous?

Each codon specifies only one single amino acid.

63
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Which amino acid is specified by the codon AUG?

Methionine.

64
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Which amino acid is specified by the codon AAA?

Lysine.

65
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What does it mean that the genetic code is universal?

Almost all species use the exact same codons for the same amino acids.

66
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Which domain of life contains some exceptions to the universal genetic code?

Archaea.

67
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What does it mean that the genetic code is nonoverlapping?

The ribosome reads three bases, then moves down exactly three bases.

68
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How many amino acids change from a single point mutation in a nonoverlapping code?

Only one amino acid.

69
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How many amino acids would change from a single mutation in an overlapping code?

Multiple amino acids.

70
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What does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate or redundant?

Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid.

71
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How many of the 64 codons code for amino acids?

61.

72
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What is "wobble" in the genetic code?

Flexibility allowing the third nucleotide of a codon to change without altering the amino acid.

73
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Which researchers deciphered the genetic code starting in 1961?

Marshall Nirenberg and Heinrich Matthaei.

74
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What did Nirenberg and Matthaei use to synthesize proteins in a test tube?

An in vitro translation system.

75
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What components are required for an in vitro translation system?

Ribosomes, tRNAs, amino acids, translation factors, and mRNA.

76
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What artificial mRNA did Nirenberg and Matthaei use to discover the codon for phenylalanine?

Poly-U.

77
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What amino acid is coded for by the codon UUU?

Phenylalanine.

78
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What artificial mRNA did Nirenberg and Matthaei use to identify the codon for lysine?

Poly-A.

79
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What artificial mRNA did Nirenberg and Matthaei use to identify the codon for proline?

Poly-C.

80
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What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA)?

To transfer specific amino acids to the ribosome.

81
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What shape does a tRNA molecule fold into?

A cloverleaf 3D shape.

82
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What are the two key structural regions of a tRNA molecule?

The amino acid binding site and the anticodon loop.

83
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Where is the amino acid binding site located on a tRNA?

At the single-stranded 3' end.

84
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Which enzymes attach the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA?

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

85
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What is the function of the anticodon loop in tRNA?

To bind complementarily to a specific mRNA codon.

86
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What experimental method was used to assign amino acids to almost all remaining codons?

The triplet binding assay.

87
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What size mRNA is used in a triplet binding assay?

An artificial mRNA of just one codon.

88
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Why was the triplet binding assay able to identify codon-amino acid matches?

The single codon recruits only the tRNA with the complementary anticodon.

89
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How many codons do not code for any amino acid?

Three.

90
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What occurs when a ribosome encounters a stop codon?

Translation terminates and protein synthesis ceases.

91
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What is the universal start codon for translation?

AUG.

92
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What is the first amino acid incorporated into every newly synthesized protein?

Methionine.

93
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What are the two main structural components of a ribosome?

A large subunit and a small subunit.

94
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What two types of macromolecules make up ribosomal subunits?

Proteins and ribosomal RNA.

95
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What is the sedimentation coefficient of a prokaryotic ribosome?

70S.

96
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What are the sizes of the large and small subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes?

50S and 30S.

97
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Which specific rRNA molecule in prokaryotes is commonly used for species identification?

16S rRNA.

98
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What is the sedimentation coefficient of a eukaryotic ribosome?

80S.

99
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What are the sizes of the large and small subunits of eukaryotic ribosomes?

60S and 40S.

100
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How many mRNA binding sites and tRNA binding sites does a ribosome have?

One mRNA binding site and three tRNA binding sites.