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423 Terms
B-GA-100 General and Wing Flying Orders;
204A Air Regulations;
GPH 205 Canada Flight Supplement;
GPH 206/207 Enroute Charts.
REF: AR01
QR&O → B-GA-100 → Wing Flying Orders → Unit/Squadron Flying Orders → Fleet Operating Procedures.
REF: B-GA-100
What are the two sections of the GPH 204 and when are they issued?
GPH 204A - Flight Plan - 112 days
GPH 204B - Glossary
To whom do the orders in the B-GA-100 apply?
All personnel involved in Canadian Forces flying operations. REF: B-GA-100 Ch1.1 pg 1-1/4
When are exceptions to B-GA-100 orders authorized?
a. when an emergency exists, or for the protection of lives;
b. when Commander 1 Cdn Air Div deems it necessary to accomplish an
operational or operational training requirement which cannot otherwise be
accomplished;
c. when written approval from Commander 1 Cdn Air Div to the Wing
concerned so authorizes;
d. when essential to the defence of Canada and time clearly does not permit
clearance from Commander 1 Cdn Air Div; or
e. to conform to NATO or host country requirements with respect to operations
outside Canada
. REF: B-GA-100 para 8a-e pg 1-2/4
Wing, Unit and Squadron Flying Orders must be consistent with higher authority orders.
TRUE. REF: B-GA-100 1.10 pg 1-2/4
What infractions must be reported?
11. Personnel shall report all infractions, whether committed by flying or air traffic control
personnel, that appear to contravene air regulations or flying orders. This direction
equally applies to personnel involved with UAS operations. Action shall be taken in
accordance with RCAF Flight Operations Manual, FOM 2.1.1.5 Aviation Infractions.
REF: B-GA-100 1.11 pg 1-3/4
What are the prerequisites to act as a crewmember of a CF aircraft?
have successfully completed applicable qualifying courses;
b. be undergoing applicable qualifying courses; or
c. have appropriate authorization from the Commander 1 Cdn Air Div.
REF: B-GA-100 2.1 2-1/4
Who has command of the aircraft?
The pilot designated as the aircraft commander (captain of the aircraft)
REF: B-GA-100 2.4 pg 2-1/4
Can passengers be carried on a test flight?
No. REF: B-GA-100 2-1/4 para 7
Who determines the number of hours that may be flown during a 24 hour period?
The Commander 1 Cdn Air Div shall issue instructions as to the number of hours
that may be flown as a member of an aircraft operating crew during any 24-hour period.
REF: B-GA-100 2.11 pg 2-2/4
Prior to commencing a flight, what information should the aircraft commander be familiar with?
Prior to each flight or mission, the commanding officer (CO) or an officer
designated by the CO in writing shall ensure that form CF 773, MMA or CF/K1017 or
other authorizing document is appropriately prepared with the proposed flight details. The
authorizing officer shall sign the document or use suitable electronic means, signifying
that the flight or mission is in the direct interest of DND business and is authorized only to
REF: B-GA-100 3.4 pg 3-1/6
Who may authorize a flight of a CF aircraft?
he commanding officer (CO) or an officer
designated by the CO in writing shall ensure that form CF 773, MMA or CF/K1017 or
other authorizing document is appropriately prepared with the proposed flight details
REF: B-GA-100 3.4
What form is used for daily recording of aircraft flying activities?
CF/K1017 or CF773. REF: B-GA-100 3.4 3-1/6
What do the aircraft commander's initials on CF/K1017 or CF773 indicate?
The aircraft was accepted for flight. REF: B-GA-100 3.4
What does signing the MRS signify?
The aircraft has been accepted and reviewed for serviceability. REF: B-GA-100 3.6c
When shall a flight plan be filed?
An appropriate flight plan shall be filed for each flight with the exception of:
a. VFR flights conducted within a 25-mile radius of the aerodrome of
departure, or within the designated local flying area, that will land only at the
aerodrome of departure or such other landing areas as prescribed in local
Flying Orders;
b. formation flights for which the formation leader has filed a flight plan;
c. operational flights or practice operational flights under close control. Such
flights must first be co-ordinated with the appropriate ATC agency by the
wing or squadron;
d. flights to or from locations where communication facilities are inadequate for
filing a flight plan and/or an arrival report within one hour after landing. A
flight itinerary for such flights should be submitted to an ATC agency. A
flight itinerary may be filed with a responsible person in cases where
communication facilities are inadequate for communicating with ATC
facilities; and,
e. UAS flights not requiring ATC flight planning services or clearances.
REF: B-GA-100 3.8
What are VFR fuel requirements for a propeller driven aircraft?
The minimum fuel requirements for VFR flights shall be sufficient for:
a. a propeller-driven aircraft to fly to the destination, and for 45 minutes
thereafter, at normal cruising consumption;
b. a helicopter to fly to the destination, and for 15 minutes thereafter, at normal
cruising consumption; and
c. a jet-driven aircraft to fly to the destination, and for 15 minutes thereafter, at
normal cruising consumption
REF: B-GA-100 3.10
An altimeter is unserviceable if the ground check error exceeds what value?
+-50 feet.
REF: B-GA-100 3.15
An aircraft without a serviceable magnetic compass or independent heading reference system shall not be flown under what conditions?
more than 25 miles from the aerodrome
under IFR
at night
REF: B-GA-100 3.16
What clothing and life support equipment may be worn aboard CF aircraft?
Only approved clothing and approved life support equipment. REF: B-GA-100 3.23-24
What equipment shall be available to aircrew during flight?
25. Appropriate maps, charts and FLIPs required to accomplish the intended mission
shall be available to the aircrew during the flight.
26. Each crew member shall carry a serviceable flashlight capable of white light when
night flying. UAS crew shall have ready access to a serviceable flashlight capable of
white light at all times while inside an enclosed GCS
REF: B-GA-100 3.25-26
When must loose equipment in an aircraft be secured?
Before flight and whenever required for safety.
REF: B-GA-100 3.27
What three essential items must be covered in a passenger briefing?
a. procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency;
b. use location and operation of life support systems and equipment; and
c. any precautions and/or restrictions to be observed
REF: B-GA-100 3.32
How long are you grounded after receiving a local dental anaesthetic?
12 hours. REF: bga100 9.7
An ACSO receives a routine immunization at 1400Z. When is the earliest they may fly?
12 hours later. REF: bga100 9.9
Under what restrictions may aircrew donate blood?
11. Aircrew, including those actively involved in flying duties, shall be permitted to
donate blood. After a blood donation, aircrew shall not perform flying duties until 72
hours have elapsed
REF: bga100 9.11
How long before reporting for duty must aircrew not consume alcohol?
12 hours. REF:bga100 ch 9. alcohol.
Give an example of a physiological incident.
Hypoxia, decompression sickness, spatial disorientation, or loss of consciousness.
]REF: bga 100 9.22
What types of PEDs may be used without restriction?
a. audio or video recorders (except those with RF emitters used for remote
transmission/operation);
b. audio or video playback devices;
c. electronic entertainment devices;
d. computer and peripheral devices;
e. calculators with printers;
f. FM or TV receivers; and
g. electric shavers.
REF: bga100 9.40
After a crash landing, should firearms be loaded or unloaded?
ensure that all fire arms are unloaded, ammunition belts or magazines are
removed, and all bombs, ejection seats, flares, etc., are fitted with the
appropriate safety devices
REF: bga100 9.45
Who determines if forced or crash landing instructions are required?
46. The
Commander 1 Cdn Air Div shall determine the requirement for, and content of,
Forced or Crash Landing Instructions for each type of aircraft under the Commander 1
Cdn Air Div jurisdiction. These instructions, if required, shall be sealed in a waterproof
envelope or other container and placed in as conspicuous a place as possible in each
aircraftREF: B-GA-100 9.46
If a medical kit or survival kit is opened, what must the aircraft commander do?
When it has been necessary to open
a medical kit or an emergency survival kit, the fact shall be entered by the aircraft
commander in the MRS Aircraft Minor Defect Record.
REF: B-GA-100 9.53
What are the rules governing safety belts and shoulder harnesses?
58. A safety belt and, when available, a shoulder harness shall be:
a. worn when an ejection seat is occupied;
b. worn by all occupants of an aircraft during take-offs and landings; and
c. worn at other times as directed by the aircraft commander.
NOTE
The Commander 1 Cdn Air Div may waive subparagraph b for selected
crew positions when the performance of duties makes the wearing of a
safety-belt and/or shoulder harness impracticable.
REF: B-GA-100 9.58
What kind of clothing must aircraft crewmembers wear or have available?
60. All aircraft crew members shall wear, or have available, approved protective
clothing suitable for the in-flight weather conditions and the climatic conditions in the
event of a forced landing. UAS crew shall wear, or have available, protective clothing
suitable for the climatic conditions associated with the geographic location of the GCS.
REF: BGA100 9.60
Direction of flight in Southern Domestic Airspace is determined by what?
Magnetic track. REF: GPH 204A Ch3art302para2
Direction of flight in Northern Domestic Airspace is determined by what?
True track. REF: GPH 204A Ch3art302para2
What is an FIR?
Flight Information Region. REF: GPH 204A 301.1
What services are provided within an FIR?
Flight information service and alerting service. REF: GPH 204A 301.1
How is IFR cruising altitude determined in controlled airspace in the Altimeter Setting Region?
altimeter shall be set to the correct altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or if stations are separated by more than 150 nm
REF: GPH 204A 710.2
What Canadian Airspace is included in the Standard Pressure Region
all airspace at/above 18000 ft
all low level airspace below 18’000 ft ASL outside the geo limits of ASR call northern airspace
altimeter
FL is indicated height of an aircraft when altimeter is set to :
Standard pressure of 29.92 inHG
REF: GPH204a 711.1c
arrival procedures withing Standard Pressure Region
GPH204A 711.3
Describe transition between Altimeter Setting Region (ASR) and Standard Pressure Region (SPR)
GPH204A 711.2
Controlled Canadian airspace withing High Level Airspace is divided into 3 separate area. Name and describe
GPH204 312 para 1a-c
Class G continuously monitored freq?
126.7 MHZ GPH204A 717.1a
What does VFR OTT permit?
REF: GPH 204A 314.1
Where is Class A airspace designated?
REF: GPH 204A 315.1-4
What operations may be conducted in Class B airspace?
REF: GPH 204A 316
What are the rules for VFR flights in Class C airspace?
REF: GPH 204A 317
When does Class C or D become Class E?
REF: GPH 204A 317
When may a fixed wing aircraft be flown below 1000 ft AGL?
1. Fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft shall not be flown below 1 000 feet and 500
feet respectively AGL or water except when:
a. taking off, landing or conducting an authorized approach to an aerodrome;
b. low flying has been authorized for prescribed low flying areas, or over
specifically prescribed low level, cross-country routes that have been flight
checked and environmentally assessed (in accordance with RCAF FOM
2.2.6 and 2.2.7), or over land or water areas designated by the Commander
1 Cdn Air Div for operational or operational training flights;
c. required by weather deteriorating to below minimum conditions on a VFR
flight in order to maintain vertical separation from cloud while initiating
alternative action. Then fixed-wing aircraft are authorized to fly not below
500 feet and rotary-wing aircraft not below 300 feet AGL or water;
d. SVFR is authorized. Chapter 7, paragraph 3 and Figures 7-1 and 7-2 or
higher established 1 Cdn Air Div limits then apply; or,
e. Operating a Class 1 UAS unless otherwise restricted.
REF: B-GA-100 Ch 5.1
List the right of way priority categories of aircraft.
8. When two aircraft of the same category are on converging tracks at approximately
the same altitude, the aircraft having the other on its right shall yield the right of way.
Aircraft of a different category have the right of way in the following priority:
a. balloons;
b. gliders;
c. airships;
d. aircraft that are towing objects;
e. helicopters carrying slung loads;
f. rotary/fixed-wing aircraft (including ultra-light); and,
g. UAS operating under Visual Line of Sight (VLOS)
REF: BGA100 5.8
If two aircraft are approaching head on and collision risk exists, what must each do?
Alter course to the right. REF: BGA100 5.9
An aircraft is landing while another is taxiing. Who has right of way?
The landing aircraft. REF: bga100 5.11
When may a fixed wing aircraft take off from an unlighted aerodrome?
Except in an emergency or when authorized by the Commander 1 Cdn Air Div, fixed-wing aircraft shall not take off at night from an unlighted aerodrome.
REF: B-GA-100 5.17
Are pilots relieved of responsibility for good airmanship when complying with ATC?
No. REF: B-GA-100 5.19
Can a pilot accept an ATC clearance that jeopardizes safety?
No. REF: B-GA-100 5.20
What frequencies must VFR pilots monitor?
Assigned frequency and 243 MHZ or 121.5 MHz when appropriate. REF: B-GA-100 5.23
What is required prior to taxiing, takeoff or landing at a controlled aerodrome?
ATC clearance or authorization. REF: B-GA-100 5.24
What must a pilot do before entering a control zone under VFR?
29. Prior to entering a control zone under VFR, the pilot shall call the appropriate air traffic control unit, giving the aircraft identification and position, and shall request authority to operate in the airspace/zone, giving specific details such as request landing instructions or clearance through the zone, etc.
REF: BGA100 5.29
What is the normal circuit direction?
30. The pilot of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome shall make a left-hand circuit unless a right-hand circuit is established for a particular runway or unless the pilot has been specifically cleared to do otherwise
REF: BGA100 5.30
What are the speed limitations outside an MTCA?
31. Speed Limitations outside an MTCA are as follows:at controlled aerodromes - aircraft shall not be flown at more than 200 knots below 3000 feet AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport unless otherwise authorized in an ATC clearance.
below 10000 feet - maximum 250 knots outside of military controlled airspace and outside of published military low flying training areas or routes, unless AOI oroperational requirements dictate otherwise.
REF:BGA 100 5.31
What does a steady green light mean in flight after radio failure?
Cleared to land. REF: BGA100 5.34
What does a steady green light mean on the ground after radio failure?
Cleared for takeoff. REF: BGA100 5.34
What are the rules governing simulated emergencies?
46. Simulated aircraft emergencies shall be conducted in accordance with appropriate 1 Cdn Air Div Orders and the RCAF FOM, and shall not jeopardize safety of flight. REF: B-GA-100 5.46
Can a CF aircraft land or take off within a provincial park?
52. No aircraft shall land or take off within a provincial or federal park unless prior arrangements have been made with the park superintendent or the superintendent's representative.
REF: B-GA-100 5.52
What markings indicate the presence of a fur farm?
52. Fur farms may be marked with chrome yellow and black strips painted on pylons or roofs. In addition, a red flag may be displayed during whelping season
REF: BGA100 5.52
What are the principles of VFR?
1. Visual Flight Rules are premised on the "see and be seen" principle.
REF: BGA100 7.1
What action must be taken when weather drops below VFR minima?
. If weather conditions less than the prescribed VFR minima are encountered, the pilot shall remain in VFR weather conditions and initiate appropriate alternative action.
REF: BGA100 7.5
What restrictions apply to VFR OTT?
a. a valid instrument rating is required;
b. the aircraft shall comply with, Chapter 8, paragraphs 6, 7 and 8, Aircraft Certification and Equipment;
c. no special annotation is necessary on a VFR or composite flight plan to indicate the intention to fly the en route portion of a VFR flight VFR OTT; and
d. if a VFR flight plan is filed, fuel requirements for VFR OTT flight remain the same as for VFR operations. If a composite flight plan is filed, minimum fuel requirements for IFR flight shall apply.
REF: BGA100 7.8
When can VFR OTT be conducted?
9. VFR OTT pertains to day VFR operations in the en route phase only and, during this phase of flight, the pilot is not required to maintain visual contact with the surface of the earth.
REF: BGA100 7.9
What destination weather is required to conduct VFR OTT?
ceiling at least 4,000 ft above planned cruise altitude and
visibility at least 3 SM.
TAF: valid from 1 hr before to 2 hrs after ETA.
GFA: valid from 1 hr before to 3 hrs after ETA.
REF: B-GA-100 Ch 7 Para 10
Do isolated and local forecasts below VFR automatically prohibit VFR flight?
a. No. the terms used to illustrate short term, local, or rapidly changing phenomena (ISOLD, LCL, FEW, DVLG and FRQ) below VFR minima do not limit VFR flight, provided that the forecast conditions generally indicate above VFR minima; and
b. the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to accomplish expected diversions from the planned flight path while maintaining the required fuel reserves
REF:BGA100 7.13ab
What are the minimum weather limits for fixed wing aircraft operating VFR?
Ceiling 1,500 ft and
visibility 3 SM.
Aircraft must remain 500 ft below cloud, 1 mile horizontally from cloud, and at least 1,000 ft AGL
. REF: B-GA-100 Fig 7-1
What are the operating requirements for fixed wing VFR flight?
Aircraft must remain 500 ft below cloud, 1 mile horizontally from cloud, and at least 1,000 ft AGL
. REF: B-GA-100 Fig 7-1
What are the requirements for Special VFR?
ATC clearance required; minimum ground visibility 1 SM; remain clear of cloud; remain within sight of the surface at all times; minimum 500 ft AGL. At night, SVFR is authorized only to allow landing at the destination aerodrome.
REF: B-GA-100 Fig 7-1
Is an ATC clearance required for Special VFR?
Yes.
ATC clearance required; minimum ground visibility 1 SM; remain clear of cloud; remain within sight of the surface at all times; minimum 500 ft AGL. At night, SVFR is authorized only to allow landing at the destination aerodrome.
REF: B-GA-100 Fig 7-1
How often is the GPH 204A published?
Every 112 days. REF: GPH 204A p1 FOREWORD