Federal Government Review Questions Exam 1

What goods are available to all without direct payment?

A. private goods

B. public goods

C. common goods

D. toll goods

Answer: B. Public goods

In which form of government does a small group of elite people hold political power?

A. direct democracy

B. monarchy

C. oligarchy

D. totalitarian

C. oligarchy

Oligarchy is a form of government where a handful of elite society members hold political power

What is the difference between a representative democracy and a direct democracy?

A representative democracy is a government where people elect representatives to make decisions for them, while a direct democracy allows people to make government decisions themselves.

What does government do for people?

Government provides goods and services, makes and enforces laws, and makes decisions for society.

The elite theory of government maintains that ________.

A. special interest groups make government policy

B. politicians who have held office for a long time are favored by voters

C. poor people and people of color should not be allowed to vote

D. wealthy, politically powerful people control government, and government has no interest in meeting the needs of ordinary people

D. wealthy, politically powerful people control government, and government has no interest in meeting the needs of ordinary people.

According to the pluralist theory of government, ________.

A. government does what the majority of voters want it to do.

B. government policy is formed as a result of the competition between groups with different goals and interests.

C. ordinary people acting on their own have a significant influence on government.

D. wealthy people decide what government policy will be, and politicians have no interest in pleasing anyone else.

B. government policy is formed as a result of the competition between groups with different goals and interests.

Supporting the actions of the Democratic Party simply because one identifies oneself as a member of that party is an example of ________.

A. partisanship

B. ideology

C. latent preference

D. social capital

A. partisanship

Partisanship is a strong support, or even blind allegiance, for a particular political party

Supporting the actions of the Democratic Party simply because one identifies oneself as a member of that party is an example of ________.

A. partisanship

B. ideology

C. latent preference

D. social capital

A. partisanship

Partisanship is a strong support, or even blind allegiance, for a particular political party

Supporting the actions of the Democratic Party simply because one identifies oneself as a member of that party is an example of ________.

A. partisanship

B. ideology

C. latent preference

D. social capital

A. partisanship

Partisanship is a strong support, or even blind allegiance, for a particular political party

British colonists in North America in the late seventeenth century were greatly influenced by the political thought of ________.

A. King James II

B. Thomas Jefferson

C. John Locke

D. James Madison

C. John Locke

The agreement that citizens will consent to be governed so long as government protects their natural rights is called ________.

A. the divine right of kings

B. the social contract

C. a bill of rights

D. due process

B. The social contract

Social contract is an agreement between people and government in which citizens consent to be governed so long as the government protects their natural rights.

What key ideas of American political thought influenced the decision to declare independence from Britain?

Natural rights, individual liberty, and the belief that government exists to protect people’s rights.

What actions by the British government convinced the colonists that they needed to declare independence?

The British government restricted the colonists’ rights and liberties and imposed taxes and other policies without their consent.

What important power did the national government lack under the Articles of Confederation?

A. It could not coin money.

B. It could not declare war.

C. It could not impose taxes.

D. It could not conduct foreign affairs.

C. It could not impose taxes.

According to the Great Compromise, how would representation in Congress be apportioned?

A. Each state would have equal representation in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.

B. Congress would be a unicameral legislature with each state receiving equal representation.

C. Representation in the House of Representatives would be based on each state’s population and every state would have two senators.

D. Representation in both the House of Representatives and the Senate would be based on a state’s population.

C. Representation in the House of Representatives would be based on each state’s population and every state would have two senators.

How did the delegates to the Constitutional Convention resolve their disagreement regarding slavery?

A. It was agreed that Congress would abolish slavery in 1850.

B. It was agreed that a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of representation but not for purposes of taxation.

C. It was agreed that a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of taxation but not for purposes of representation.

D. It was agreed that 60 percent of a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of both representation and taxation.

D. It was agreed that 60 percent of a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of both representation and taxation.

What does separation of powers mean?

Government power is divided among different branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.

Why were The Federalist Papers written?

A. To encourage states to oppose the Constitution.

B. To encourage New York to ratify the Constitution.

C. To oppose the admission of slaveholding states to the federal union.

D. To encourage people to vote for George Washington as the nation’s first president.

B. To encourage New York to ratify the Constitution.

What argument did Alexander Hamilton use to convince people that it was not dangerous to place power in the hands of one man?

A. That man would have to pass a religious test before he could become president; thus, citizens could be sure that he was of good character.

B. One man could respond to crises more quickly than a group of men like Congress.

C. It was easier to control the actions of one man than the actions of a group.

D. both B and C

D. both B and C

How many states must ratify an amendment before it becomes law?

A. all

B. three-fourths

C. two-thirds

D. one-half

B. three-fourths

Why did many people oppose ratification of the Constitution, and how was their opposition partly overcome?

Many people feared that the new national government would have too much power and could threaten individual rights. Opposition was partly overcome by promising to add a Bill of Rights.

What is the Bill of Rights?

A. first ten amendments to the Constitution that protect individual freedoms

B. powers given to Congress in Article I of the Constitution

C. twenty-seven amendments added to the Constitution over the years

D. document authored by Thomas Jefferson that details the rights of the citizens

A. first ten amendments to the Constitution that protect individual freedoms

What did the Fourteenth Amendment achieve?

It established citizenship, due process, and equal protection of the laws and became important in applying constitutional protections to the states.

Which statement about federal and unitary systems is most accurate?

A. In a federal system, power is concentrated in the states; in a unitary system, it is concentrated in the national government.

B. In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between states and the federal government; in a unitary system, powers are lodged in the national government.

C. Today there are more countries with federal systems than with unitary systems.

D. The United States and Japan have federal systems, while Great Britain and Canada have unitary systems.

B. In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between states and federal government; in a unitary system, powers are lodged in the national government.

Which statement is most accurate about the sources of revenue for local and state governments?

A. Taxes generate well over one-half of the total revenue of local and state governments.

B. Property taxes generate the most tax revenue for both local and state governments.

C. Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money.

D. Local and state governments generate an equal amount of revenue from issuing licenses and certificates.

C. Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money.

Which statement is most accurate about the sources of revenue for local and state governments?

A. Taxes generate well over one-half of the total revenue of local and state governments.

B. Property taxes generate the most tax revenue for both local and state governments.

C. Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money.

D. Local and state governments generate an equal amount of revenue from issuing licenses and certificates.

C. Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money.

In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court invoked which provisions of the constitution?

A. Tenth Amendment and spending clause

B. commerce clause and supremacy clause

C. necessary and proper clause and supremacy clause

D. taxing power and necessary and proper clause

C. necessary and proper clause and supremacy clause

What are the main functions of federal and state governments?

The federal government handles national issues such as defense, foreign policy, and interstate commerce. State governments handle areas such as education, public safety, and health.

Which statement about new federalism is not true?

A. New federalism was launched by President Nixon and continued by President Reagan.

B. New federalism is based on the idea that decentralization of responsibility enhances administrative efficiency.

C. United States v. Lopez is a Supreme Court ruling that advanced the logic of new federalism.

D. President Reagan was able to promote new federalism consistently throughout his administration.

D. President Reagan was able to promote new federalism consistently throughout his administration.

New federalism is a style of federalism premised on the idea that the decentralization of policies enhances administrative efficiency, reduces overall public spending, and improves outcomes

Which is not a merit of cooperative federalism?

A. Federal cooperation helps mitigate the problem of collective action among states.

B. Federal assistance encourages state and local governments to generate positive externalities.

C. Cooperative federalism respects the traditional jurisdictional boundaries between states and federal government.

D. Federal assistance ensures some degree of uniformity of public services across states.

C. Cooperative federalism respects the traditional jurisdictional boundaries between states and the federal government.

Cooperative federalism is a style of federalism in which both levels of government coordinate their actions to solve national problems, leading to the blending of layers as in a marble cake

What are the main differences between cooperative federalism and dual federalism?

Dual federalism keeps federal and state responsibilities more separate, while cooperative federalism involves the federal and state governments working together and sharing responsibilities.

Which statement about federal grants in recent decades is most accurate?

A. The federal government allocates the most grant money to income security.

B. The amount of federal grant money going to states has steadily increased since the 1960s.

C. The majority of federal grants are block grants.

D. Block grants tend to gain more flexibility over time.

B. The amount of federal grant money going to states has steadily increased since the 1960s.

Which statement about unfunded mandates is false?

A. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act has prevented Congress from using unfunded mandates.

B. The Clean Air Act is a type of federal partial preemptive regulation.

C. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act establishes crosscutting requirements.

D. New federalism promotes the use of unfunded mandates.

A. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act has prevented Congress from using unfunded mandates.

Unfunded mandates are federal laws and regulations that impose obligations on state and local governments without fully compensating them for the costs of implementation

What does it mean to refer to the carrot of grants and the stick of mandates?

The “carrot” refers to federal grants that encourage states to follow certain policies. The “stick” refers to federal mandates that require states to follow certain rules, sometimes without providing funding.

Which statement about immigration federalism is false?

A. The Arizona v. United States decision struck down all Arizona’s most restrictive provisions on undocumented immigration.

B. Since the 1990s, states have increasingly moved into the policy domain of immigration.

C. Federal immigration laws trump state laws.

D. States’ involvement in immigration is partly due to their interest in preventing undocumented immigrants from accessing public services such as education and welfare benefits.

A. The Arizona v. United States decision struck down all Arizona’s most restrictive provisions on undocumented immigration.

What does venue shopping mean?

Venue shopping is a strategy in which interest groups select the level and branch of government they calculate will be most receptive to their policy goals

Key idea: Venue shopping means choosing the level or branch of government where a group believes it can have the most influence over a policy issue.

What does venue shopping mean?

Venue shopping is a strategy in which interest groups select the level and branch of government they calculate will be most receptive to their policy goals

Key idea: Venue shopping means choosing the level or branch of government where a group believes it can have the most influence over a policy issue.

Which statement about venue shopping is true?

A. MADD steered the drinking age issue from the federal government down to the states.

B. Anti-abortion advocates have steered the abortion issue from the states up to the federal government.

C. Both MADD and anti-abortion proponents redirected their advocacy from the states to the federal government.

D. None of the statements are correct.

D. None of the statements are correct.

Which of the following is not a benefit of federalism?

A. Federalism promotes political participation.

B. Federalism encourages economic equality across the country.

C. Federalism provides for multiple levels of government action.

D. Federalism accommodates a diversity of opinion.

B. Federalism encourages economic equality across the country.

Federalism is a institutional arrangement that creates two relatively autonomous levels of government, each possessing the capacity to act directly on the people with authority granted by the national constitution.

What are the disadvantages of federalism?

Federalism can trigger a race to the bottom, leading states to reduce workplace regulations and social benefits for employees; it can obstruct federal efforts to address national problems; and it can deepen economic and social disparities among states.