Overview of Genetics, Cells, and the Cell Cycle

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These flashcards cover key concepts from the lecture notes on genetics, cellular structure, organelle functions, and the cell cycle—emphasizing applications to dentistry and human health.

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73 Terms

1
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What does the field of genetics study?

Inherited traits and their variation.

2
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Which molecule makes up genes?

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

3
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Traits result from an interaction between and .

genes; the environment

4
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Name the three chemical components of a DNA nucleotide.

Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, nitrogenous base.

5
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Which bases pair in DNA?

Adenine–Thymine and Guanine–Cytosine.

6
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List the four components of an RNA nucleotide.

Phosphate, ribose sugar, adenine, guanine, cytosine, or uracil (uracil replaces thymine).

7
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How does RNA differ structurally from DNA?

RNA is single-stranded, contains ribose, and uses uracil instead of thymine.

8
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What are alleles?

Variant forms of the same gene.

9
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Mutations that occur in sperm or egg cells are called and are to the next generation.

germline mutations; heritable

10
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How many chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell, and how are they categorized?

46 chromosomes: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.

11
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What is a karyotype?

A chart displaying an individual's chromosome pairs from largest to smallest.

12
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Define the human genome.

The complete set of genetic information, including all genes and non-coding DNA, in a human cell.

13
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Somatic cells are (ploidy level), whereas sperm and egg cells are .

diploid; haploid

14
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What dual property makes stem cells unique?

They can self-renew and differentiate into specialized cell types.

15
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State the basic difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells concerning the nucleus.

Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus; eukaryotes possess one.

16
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What is the primary function of the plasma membrane?

To act as a selective barrier regulating entry and exit of substances.

17
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Which organelle houses DNA and directs cellular activities?

The nucleus.

18
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State the main function of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Protein synthesis and initial folding (via ribosomes on its surface).

19
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Give two functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Lipid synthesis and detoxification of drugs/poisons.

20
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Describe the key role of the Golgi apparatus.

Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery.

21
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Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes for intracellular digestion?

Lysosome.

22
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What do peroxisomes do?

Break down lipids and detoxify harmful substances, producing hydrogen peroxide.

23
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Which organelle is the main site of ATP production?

Mitochondrion.

24
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What is the function of ribosomes?

Translation of mRNA into polypeptide chains (protein synthesis).

25
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List three structural proteins that make up the cytoskeleton.

Microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments.

26
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Image quality in light microscopy relies on which three parameters?

Magnification, resolution, and contrast.

27
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About how many times can a light microscope magnify effectively?

Up to ~1,000× the actual specimen size.

28
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Give two common forensic uses of DNA profiling.

Identifying crime suspects and identifying victims of disasters.

29
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List two key differences between single-gene diseases and multifactorial diseases.

Single-gene diseases allow predictable inheritance patterns and potential presymptomatic testing; multifactorial diseases involve multiple genes and environmental factors, making prediction harder.

30
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Define a Mendelian trait.

A trait determined primarily by a single gene, following Mendel’s laws.

31
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What characterizes a multifactorial trait?

It is influenced by one or more genes plus environmental factors.

32
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Differentiate genotype and phenotype.

Genotype is the allele combination an individual carries; phenotype is the observable trait or expression.

33
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When is a dominant allele expressed?

When at least one copy is present.

34
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What does a pedigree allow geneticists to do?

Trace inheritance patterns of traits across generations.

35
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What is the role of telomeres?

Protect chromosome ends; their shortening limits the number of cell divisions.

36
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Apoptosis begins when a cell receives what kind of signal?

A 'death signal' that activates caspase enzymes.

37
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Name the four main phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle in order.

G1, S, G2, M.

38
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Interphase occupies roughly what percentage of the cell cycle?

About 90%.

39
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What is the purpose of cell-cycle checkpoints?

To ensure events occur in proper sequence and prevent damaged cells from dividing.

40
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State one major event that occurs during prophase of mitosis.

Chromosomes condense and the mitotic spindle begins to form.

41
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What key alignment defines metaphase?

Chromosomes line up along the cell’s equatorial metaphase plate.

42
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Which event characterizes anaphase?

Sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles.

43
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List two notable events of telophase.

Chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes reform around each set.

44
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How does cytokinesis typically occur in animal cells?

By formation of a cleavage furrow produced by a contractile ring of microfilaments.

45
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How does cytokinesis differ in plant cells?

A cell plate forms from vesicles, ultimately creating a new cell wall.

46
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What is the role of centrosomes in mitosis?

They organize the spindle microtubules that separate chromosomes.

47
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Differentiate kinetochore microtubules from non-kinetochore microtubules.

Kinetochore microtubules attach to chromosomes; non-kinetochore microtubules overlap and push to elongate the cell.

48
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What two protein families form the core of the cell-cycle clock?

Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks).

49
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MPF, a cyclin-Cdk complex, allows a cell to pass which checkpoint?

The G2 checkpoint into mitosis.

50
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Why is the G1 checkpoint often considered the cell-cycle 'restriction point'?

Because passing it commits the cell to DNA replication and division; failure to pass sends the cell to G0.

51
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How does paracrine signaling differ from endocrine signaling?

Paracrine targets nearby cells; endocrine targets distant cells via the bloodstream.

52
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In a phospholipid bilayer, which region is hydrophilic and which is hydrophobic?

The phosphate 'head' is hydrophilic; fatty-acid 'tails' are hydrophobic.

53
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Name any four of the six major functions of membrane proteins.

Transport, enzymatic activity, signal transduction, cell-cell recognition, intercellular joining, attachment to cytoskeleton/ECM.

54
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What symptom can sodium-channel mutations cause?

Extreme pain insensitivity or the opposite—chronic pain.

55
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Cystic fibrosis results from mutations in which type of ion channel?

Chloride channel (CFTR gene).

56
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Define genomics.

The study and comparison of entire genomes of organisms.

57
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What is metagenomics?

Sequencing and analyzing all DNA present in an environmental sample to study entire microbial communities.

58
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During which cell-cycle phase are chromosomes replicated?

S phase.

59
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What causes a benign tumor to become malignant?

Ability to invade surrounding tissues and metastasize to distant sites.

60
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Binary fission is the cell-division mechanism in which organisms?

Prokaryotes such as bacteria and archaea.

61
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Which enzyme prevents telomere shortening in germline and cancer cells?

Telomerase.

62
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Name the proteases activated during apoptosis.

Caspases.

63
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What is pharmacogenomics?

The study of how genetic variation affects individual responses to drugs.

64
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State one application of DNA testing in historical studies.

Confirming that Thomas Jefferson fathered children with Sally Hemmings.

65
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Which type of microscopy uses fluorescent tags to visualize structures?

Fluorescence microscopy.

66
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Why are lysosomes important in defense against oral pathogens?

They digest engulfed bacteria and debris, aiding immune responses in periodontal tissues.

67
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What dental condition can arise from defective Golgi trafficking in ameloblasts?

Amelogenesis imperfecta (weak or improperly formed enamel).

68
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Name two macromolecule classes that provide energy storage or structural support.

Carbohydrates and lipids.

69
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Which bacterial species is most commonly associated with dental caries?

Streptococcus mutans.

70
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What is osseointegration in implant dentistry?

Bone cells adhering to and growing around a titanium implant surface.

71
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How do fibroblasts aid periodontal ligament repair?

They synthesize collagen to rebuild connective tissue fibers.

72
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Which cellular process is up-regulated during healing after tooth extraction?

Mitosis for rapid replacement of damaged oral tissues.

73
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Which organelle imbalance may contribute to periodontal disease inflammation?

Mitochondrial dysfunction leading to excess reactive oxygen species.