clinic theory III dentalcare.com assignments

role of dental professionals in identifying child maltreatment

• shall be obliged to become familiar with signs of abuse and neglect and to report suspected cases to the proper authorities, consistent with state laws

• all health care providers are mandated to report suspected cases of abuse and neglect to social services or law enforcement agencies

legal obligations of health care professionals to report suspected maltreatment

1. To observe and examine any suspicious evidence that can be ascertained in the office.

2. To record, per legal and court rules, any evidence that may be helpful in the case, including physical evidence and any comments from questioning or interviews.

3. To treat any dental or orofacial injuries within the treatment expertise of the dentist, referring more extensive treatment needs to a hospital or dental/medical specialist.

4. To establish/maintain a professional therapeutic relationship with the family.

5. To become familiar with the perioral signs of child abuse and neglect and to report suspected cases to the proper authorities consistent with state law.

true

Over 3 million children received child protection investigative or alternative response services in the United States in 2023 according to the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services.

true or false

C. 546,159

According to the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, approximately how many children were substantiated victims of child maltreatment in the United States in 2020?

A. 3.145 million

B. 620,000

C. 546,159

D. 850,000

D. found in all cultural, ethnic, and socioeconomic segments of American society

Child abuse and neglect are _______________.

A. only found in low-income families

B. found more often in rural communities

C. less prevalent in the United States than in the rest of the world

D. found in all cultural, ethnic, and socioeconomic segments of American society

A. True

The incidence of child maltreatment of girls is much higher than the incidence of maltreatment of boys.

A. True

B. False

D. Domestic violence in the home, drug abuse

Which two caregiver risk factors for maltreatment resulted in the highest percentages of child victims?

A. Caregiver disability, drug abuse

B. Disabilities of child, inadequate housing

C. Financial problems, alcohol abuse

D. Domestic violence in the home, drug abuse

false

It is unlikely that a dental professional will see indications of maltreatment during a routine dental examination of a child because craniofacial, head, face and neck injuries occur in less than half of child abuse cases.

A. True

B. False

true

Oral trauma, caries, gingivitis, and other oral health problems are more prevalent in maltreated children than in the general pediatric population.

A. True

B. False

B. All health professionals are legally mandated to report suspected cases of child maltreatment consistent with state laws, including dentists, dental assistants, and dental hygienists (B)

Which of the following statement is true regarding the reporting of child abuse and neglect?

A. Only nurses and physicians must report child abuse and neglect.

B. All health professionals are legally mandated to report suspected cases of child maltreatment consistent with state laws, including dentists, dental assistants, and dental hygienists.

C. Pediatric dentists and pediatric oral surgeons are the only members of the dental profession who must report child abuse and neglect.

D. Dental hygienists are not required to report suspected cases of child maltreatment.

C. To treat all injuries exhibited by a child suspected to have been physically abused

All of the following roles and responsibilities are included in the American Dental Association’s Principles of Ethics and Code of Conduct, EXCEPT one, which is the exception?

A. To record any evidence that may assist in the legal proceedings of a child maltreatment case

B. To be aware of the signs and symptoms of child abuse and neglect

C. To treat all injuries exhibited by a child suspected to have been physically abused

D. To establish/maintain a professional therapeutic relationship with the family

C. Traumatic alopecia

Injury to the eyes of a child who has been physically abused is indicated by all of the following factors EXCEPT ONE. Which is NOT a specific indication of an injury to the eyes of a physically abused child?

A. Retinal hemorrhage

B. Ptosis

C. Traumatic alopecia

D. Periorbital bruising

A. Labial or lingual frenum tears

Which of the following is characteristic of more severely abused children?

A. Labial or lingual frenum tears

B. Cavities

C. Bad breath

D. Bruised cheek

B. Physical and sexual

Bite marks are usually associated with what types of abuse?

A. General neglect

B. Physical and sexual

C. Neglect and physical

D. Emotional and dental neglect

D. Child is very talkative

All of the following are strong indicators of a dentally neglected child EXCEPT one, which is the exception?

A. Multiple, untreated caries

B. Untreated pain

C. Untreated infection

D. Child is very talkative

D. Head trauma as indicated by bruises to the forehead and mouth

All of the following orofacial manifestations are specific indicators of sexual abuse EXCEPT one, which is the exception?

A. Classic chancre of primary syphilis

B. Herpes simplex virus, Type 2

C. Erythema, ecchymosis and/or petechia of palate

D. Head trauma as indicated by bruises to the forehead and mouth

C. Report your observations and concerns to child protection

If you have observed ulcerations that you suspect are gonorrhea, you should do the following:

A. Ask the parent to make a follow-up dental appointment in a week to check on the child to make sure it clears up

B. Note the observation in the child’s file but nothing further

C. Report your observations and concerns to child protection

D. Confront the parent

true

If a verbal child presents with ulcers, lesions, or blisters that suggest a sexually transmitted disease, an appropriate approach by the dental professional is to ask the child, “Tell me about these blisters,” and “Who knows about the blisters?”

A. True

B. False

D. Interrogate the child and get as many details of the abuse as possible

When a dental professional believes that a child is the victim of maltreatment, the dental professional should do the following things EXCEPT one, which is the exception?

A. Consider the child’s development and history

B. Ask the child about who and what happened, using open ended inquiry and the child’s terminology

C. Remain neutral

D. Interrogate the child and get as many details of the abuse as possible

A. Names, addresses and dates of birth; what you observed; what the parties said; diagnosis and treatment

Which best describes what you should include in documenting suspected child maltreatment?

A. Names, addresses and dates of birth; what you observed; what the parties said; diagnosis and treatment

B. Analysis of your state’s mandatory reporting statute, your observations, what the parties said, diagnosis and treatment recommendations

C. Caregiver’s dental history, the weather that day, your observations, the family’s payment history

D. Your opinion of child protection investigations, detailed description of the dental injury, your opinion of the family in general, the family’s socioeconomic status

false

If you have worked in one state as a dental professional and you move to another state, you can assume the mandatory reporting requirements are the same.

A. True

B. False

The duty to report is based on which of the following?

A. The family’s payment history

B. Facts that support a reasonable cause to suspect maltreatment

C. Multiple cavities

D. A gut feeling

false

A dental professional should always inform the caregivers before making a maltreatment report regarding their child.

A. True

B. False

C. It is the responsibility of child protection and/or law enforcement to investigate

After a dentist makes a maltreatment report, which of the following is true?

A. The child protection investigator will identify the dentist as the reporter to the family.

B. The child will always be taken from the home.

C. It is the responsibility of child protection and/or law enforcement to investigate.

D. The dentist can be held civilly liable.

false

A dentist should never call 911 even if the dentist reasonably believes the child is in imminent danger.

A. True

B. False

true

Failure to make a report when there is reasonable cause to suspect child maltreatment could result in criminal charges.

A. True

B. False

true

Dentists can assist in the prevention and reoccurrence of child maltreatment by making sure their dental office team is aware of the signs of child abuse, counseling parents on good oral hygiene and routine dental care, and reporting suspected cases of child maltreatment to the proper authorities.

A. True

B. False

C. Syncope

The most common medical emergency in a dental office is _______________.

A. Mild allergy

B. Seizures

C. Syncope

D. Local anesthesia overdose

A. Alerting other staff members

A duty of the first person on the scene of an emergency is _______________.

A. Alerting other staff members

B. Contacting EMS

C. Retrieving the emergency drug kit

D. Direct EMS to the site of the emergency

C. An “E” sized tank of oxygen

Essential emergency equipment includes:

A. Laryngoscope

B. Various sized intubation tubes

C. An “E” sized tank of oxygen

D. Atropine

A. Anaphylaxis

Epinephrine is primarily recommended for managing _______________.

A. Anaphylaxis

B. Myocardial infarction

C. Seizures

D. Hypoglycemia

C. Hypoglycemia

Glucagon is used in the management of _______________.

A. Seizures

B. Anaphylaxis

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Psychogenic syncope

B. Benzodiazepine overdose

Flumazenil is used in the management of _______________.

A. Status epilepticus

B. Benzodiazepine overdose

C. Local anesthesia overdose

D. Narcotic overdose

A. Lorazepam

The drug of choice for treating status epilepticus is _______________.

A. Lorazepam

B. Atropine

C. Hydrocortisone

D. Naloxone

B. Sitting upright during local anesthesia administration

A non-psychogenic predisposing factor for syncope is _______________.

A. The sight of bloody gauze

B. Sitting upright during local anesthesia administration

C. Sudden and unanticipated pain

D. Receipt of the treatment fee

A. Warm feeling

A symptom during the early stage of syncope is _______________.

A. Warm feeling

B. Cold extremities

C. Bradycardia

D. Pupillary constriction

C. In a supine position with the feet elevated

A patient experiencing syncope should be positioned _______________.

A. In a semi-supine position at a 30-to-45-degree angle

B. With the head and upper body pushed forward

C. In a supine position with the feet elevated

D. In a vertical standing position

B. Circulation>Airway>Breathing

The order of treating a patient with syncope is _______________.

A. Airway>Breathing>Circulation

B. Circulation>Airway>Breathing

C. Circulation>Breathing>Airway

D. Airway>Circulation>Breathing

C. Release of histamine from IgE sensitized mast cells

Anaphylactic reactions are caused by _______________.

A. Release of catecholamines into the circulatory system

B. Intravascular injections

C. Release of histamine from IgE sensitized mast cells

D. Increased insulin production

C. 1 ml of 1:2000 epinephrine

The appropriate dose of epinephrine to a 5 year old child experiencing asthmatic attack is _______________.

A. 1 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine

B. 1 ml of 1:10,000 epinephrine

C. 1 ml of 1:2000 epinephrine

D. 1 ml of 1:20,000 epinephrine

A. Oral diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg every six hours

Mild allergic reaction in a 5 year old child is treated by administering _______________.

A. Oral diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg every six hours

B. A one-time dose of oral diphenhydramine 25 mg

C. 1 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly

D. 1 ml of 1:2000 epinephrine intramuscularly

B. Upright with arms thrown forward over a chair

The position for managing a patient experiencing an acute asthmatic episode is _______________.

A. A supine position with legs elevated

B. Upright with arms thrown forward over a chair

C. A semi-supine position at a 30 to 45 degree angle

D. Supine with the head tilted to the side

D. Shortness of breath

The signs and symptoms of acute asthma attack include_______________.

A. Bradycardia

B. Hyperventilation

C. Lightness in the chest

D. Shortness of breath

A. 0.017 mg

The amount of vasoconstrictor in 1.7ml cartridge of Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 Epinephrine is _______________.

A. 0.017 mg

B. 0.17 mg

C. 0.034 mg

D. 0.34 mg

B. Administer oxygen via a mask

Emergency management of local anesthesia toxicity in a five-year-old includes:

A. Administer 1 ml epinephrine 1:1000

B. Administer oxygen via a mask

C. Administer 1 ml of flumazenil 0.1 mg IV

D. Administer oral diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg

C. Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

Vasoconstrictor should be avoided or minimized in patients with the following condition:

A. Blood pressure of 120 mm Hg systolic or 80 mg Hg diastolic

B. Blood pressure of 80 mm Hg systolic or 50 mg Hg diastolic

C. Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

D. Uncontrolled hypothyroidism

B. An unconscious 23 lb patient exhibiting hypoglycemia

An initial dose 0.5cc of glucagon IM is the drug of choice for treating _______________.

A. A conscious 23 lb patient exhibiting hypoglycemia

B. An unconscious 23 lb patient exhibiting hypoglycemia

C. A conscious 23 lb patient exhibiting signs of hyperglycemia

D. An unconscious 23 lb patient exhibiting signs of hyperglycemia

C. 2 to 5 minutes

The ictal phase of Grand Mal seizures usually lasts for _______________.

A. Less than 1 minute

B. 1 to 2 minutes

C. 2 to 5 minutes

D. More than 5 minutes

D. 102°F

Febrile Seizure occurs when the temperature exceeds _______________.

A. 99°F

B. 100°F

C. 101°F

D. 102°F

B. Assess the patient, initiate CPR, activate the emergency response system, and obtain an AED simultaneously.

The proper sequence of BLS for a child in cardiac arrest, witnessed by 2 rescuers, is:

A. Assess the patient, obtain an AED, initiate CPR, activate the emergency response system.

B. Assess the patient, initiate CPR, activate the emergency response system, and obtain an AED simultaneously.

C. Initiate CPR, assess the patient, activate the emergency response system, obtain an AED.

D. Activate the emergency response system, assess the patient, initiate CPR, obtain an AED

D. Naloxone

The drug of choice for treating narcotic overdose is ____________

A. Atropine

B. Flumazenil

C. Phenobarbital

D. Naloxone

A. 15:2

The compression-ventilation ratio for a 2-year-old child using 2 rescuers is ____________.

A. 15:2

B. 30:2

C. 60:2

D. 90:2

B. 80%

According to the literature, SDF arrests approximately what percentage of carious lesions?

A. 100%

B. 80%

C. 50%

D. 25%

A. Irreversible pulpitis

Which of the following is a contraindication for SDF treatment?

A. Irreversible pulpitis

B. Cavitated lesions

C. Incipient lesions

D. Root caries

C. 10

What is the pH of Advantage Arrest 38% SDF?

A. 13

B. 7

C. 10

D. 5

C. 1 minute

Ideally, SDF should be applied to a lesion for at least _______________.

A. 10 seconds

B. 10 minutes

C. 1 minute

D. 5 minutes

B. Allow it to air dry

Which best describes the step immediately following application of SDF:

A. Light cure

B. Allow it to air dry

C. Rinse

D. Dry with compressed air

10 kg

When working with SDF, a good rule of thumb is: one drop per ______ body weight.

A. 10 kg

B. 100kg

C. 5kg

D. 1kg

C. 1354

What is the CDT code for Interim Caries Arresting Medicament, otherwise known as the SDF code?

A. 1204

B. 1205

C. 1354

D. 1355

A. True

SDF is radiolucent.

A. True

B. False

C. Biannually (twice a year)

What is the minimum frequency that SDF should be reapplied to unrestored carious lesions?

A. It only needs to be applied once

B. Annually

C. Biannually (twice a year)

D. Monthly

B. It reduces the efficacy of SDF and still produces perceptible stain over time

Which of the following is a disadvantage of applying potassium iodine (KI) after SDF?

A. Using a rubber dam can help prevent soft tissue from the higher pH.

B. It reduces the efficacy of SDF and still produces perceptible stain over time.

C. KI can reduce initial darkening of SDF treated lesions.

D. It will not stain healthy enamel.

C. diagnostic radiographs

If the foundation of an accurate diagnosis and treatment plan are a comprehensive medical and dental history, a thorough clinical examination, and diagnostic radiographs, the most difficult to obtain is _______________.

A. a comprehensive medical and dental history

B. a thorough clinical examination

C. diagnostic radiographs

D. They all exhibit the same difficulty.

D. A and B

A parent's resistance to the use of radiographs may be reduced by _______________.

A. apprising parents of the need for radiographs to derive an accurate diagnosis

B. educating parents of the newer philosophies and techniques for acquiring radiographs

C. insurance companies not paying benefits without them

D. A and B

B. children's teeth should be first examined by a dentist or hygienist before deciding on the number and types of radiographs

According to guidelines issued by various dental associations, _______________.

A. radiographs should be taken routinely every 6 months

B. children's teeth should be first examined by a dentist or hygienist before deciding on the number and types of radiographs

C. every patient should have a full mouth series of radiographs at the initial visit

D. the dentist should not rely on radiographs from another office even if they are recent

A. the dentist may refuse to treat the child if the child's treatment may be compromised by not taking radiographs

If a parent refuses to have their child undergo radiographic examination, _______________.

A. the dentist may refuse to treat the child if the child's treatment may be compromised by not taking radiographs

B. the parent may offer to release the dentist from liability from subsequent damages that a radiograph might have prevented

C. the dentist should treat only the problems that are visual

D. the dentist should treat all suspicious areas

A. individualized radiographic examination consisting of periapical/occlusal views and posterior bitewings or panoramic examination and posterior bitewings

For a new patient in the primary dentition, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. individualized radiographic examination consisting of periapical/occlusal views and posterior bitewings or panoramic examination and posterior bitewings

B. posterior bitewings, at the minimum, in all situations

C. individualized radiographs consisting of posterior bitewings and selected periapicals and a full mouth radiographic examination

D. None of the above.

B. individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings and selected periapical images

For a new patient in the transitional dentition, the prescription of radiographs for assessment of dental disease should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination, if proximal surfaces of primary teeth cannot be visualized or probed

B. individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings and selected periapical images

C. individualized radiographs consisting of posterior bitewings and selected periapicals and a full mouth radiographic examination

D. None of the above.

C. individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings and selected periapical images.

For a new adolescent patient with a permanent dentition prior to eruption of third molars, the prescription of radiographs for the assessment of dental disease should be limited to _______________.

A. individualized radiographic exam consisting of panoramic radiograph.

B. individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings.

C. individualized radiographic exam consisting of posterior bitewings with panoramic exam or posterior bitewings and selected periapical images.

D. individualized radiographic exam consisting of periapical images.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

For a recall patient in the primary dentition exhibiting clinical caries or high risk factors for caries, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12 month intervals or until no carious lesions are present

C. posterior bitewing examination at 18 month intervals

D. posterior bitewing examination at 24 month intervals

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

For a recall patient in the transitional dentition exhibiting clinical caries or high risk factors, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12 month intervals or until no carious lesions are present

C. posterior bitewing examination at 18 month intervals

D. posterior bitewing examination at 24 month intervals

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

For a recall patient in the primary dentition exhibiting no clinical caries or no risk factors for caries, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6 month intervals

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

C. No radiographs should be taken.

D. None of the above.

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

For a recall patient in the transitional dentition exhibiting no clinical caries or no risk factors for caries, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6 month intervals

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

C. posterior bitewing examination at 18-36 month intervals

D. No radiographs should be taken.

C. posterior bitewing examination at 18-36 month intervals

For a recall patient in the permanent dentition exhibiting no clinical caries or no risk factors for caries, the prescription of radiographs should be limited to _______________.

A. posterior bitewing examination at 6 month intervals

B. posterior bitewing examination at 12-24 month intervals

C. posterior bitewing examination at 18-36 month intervals

D. No radiographs should be taken.

D. The median exposure dose of radiation is less than a cephalometric radiograph

Which of the following is not true of CBCT?

A. The median exposure dose of radiation is greater than four posterior bitewing radiographs.

B. The median exposure dose of radiation is greater than a panographic radiograph.

C. The median exposure dose of radiation is greater than a cephalometric radiograph.

D. The median exposure dose of radiation is less than a cephalometric radiograph.

C. The parent restrains the child's body while a staff member restrains the child's head and stabilizes the radiograph.

If a patient is uncooperative, which of the following is NOT performed?

A. The parent restrains the child while seated in his/her lap.

B. The parent restrains the child's body while a friend or family member restrains the child's head and stabilizes the radiograph.

C. The parent restrains the child's body while a staff member restrains the child's head and stabilizes the radiograph.

D. The child is restrained in a mechanical restraining device and the parent stabilizes the radiograph.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is effective in reducing hyper gag reflex problems in children while taking radiographs?

A. Place the radiograph in a vertical position.

B. Allow the child to watch in a mirror.

C. Administer nitrous oxide during radiographic exposure.

D. All of the above.

A. True

Starting with an anterior radiograph is an example of desensitization.

A. True

B. False

B. one fourth

Following trauma, to diagnose any tooth fragment impregnated into the soft tissue, the exposure time is ____________.

A. the same

B. one fourth

C. doubled

D. tripled