Common Geriatric Disorders

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85 question-and-answer flashcards covering key geriatric, oncology, neurologic, musculoskeletal, ophthalmologic, and pharmacologic concepts from the lecture notes.

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86 Terms

1
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What skin lesion is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma and appears as small, rough, scaly pink-to-reddish patches on sun-exposed skin?

Actinic keratosis

2
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What is the preferred diagnostic method for confirming actinic keratosis?

Skin lesion biopsy

3
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How are a small number of actinic keratoses usually treated?

Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen

4
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Which topical chemotherapeutic agent is used for widespread actinic keratoses?

5-fluorouracil cream

5
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Sudden severe eye pain, halos around lights, mid-dilated non-reactive pupil and nausea in an older adult suggest what ophthalmic emergency?

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

6
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When acute angle-closure glaucoma is suspected, what is the immediate management step?

Call 911/emergent ophthalmologic evaluation

7
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Which bedside test measures elevated intraocular pressure in acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Tonometry

8
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Define a cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

Sudden onset of neurologic dysfunction lasting >24 hrs due to brain infarction or hemorrhage (stroke)

9
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How does a transient ischemic attack (TIA) differ from a stroke?

TIA causes temporary neurologic deficits without permanent infarction; symptoms resolve within 24 hrs

10
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Name the two major categories of stroke.

Ischemic stroke and hemorrhagic stroke

11
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List two classic bowel-related warning signs of colorectal cancer.

Hematochezia or melena and change in bowel habits (e.g., ribbon-like stools)

12
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At what age should average-risk adults begin routine colorectal cancer screening?

45 years

13
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Give one screening question used to detect elder abuse regarding home safety.

"Do you feel safe where you live?"

14
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Bruises on breasts or unexplained vaginal/rectal bleeding in an elder may indicate what?

Sexual abuse

15
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Unequal leg length with external rotation after a fall in an older adult is characteristic of what injury?

Hip fracture

16
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Approximately what percentage of older adults die within a year of a hip fracture?

Up to 20 %

17
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Unilateral temporal headache with jaw claudication and elevated ESR suggests which vasculitis?

Giant cell (temporal) arteritis

18
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What procedure is definitive for diagnosing giant cell arteritis?

Temporal artery biopsy

19
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Floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain over part of vision indicate what emergency?

Retinal detachment

20
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Name two major risk factors for retinal detachment.

High myopia and prior cataract surgery

21
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In older adults, acute confusion without fever may be the only sign of what?

Severe bacterial infection

22
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What is the leading cause of death in persons >65 years?

Heart disease

23
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Which cancer causes the highest number of deaths in the United States?

Lung and bronchial cancer

24
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What environmental gas is the second-leading cause of lung cancer after smoking?

Radon

25
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Which annual screening test is recommended for high-risk adults aged 50–80 with ≥20-pack-year history?

Low-dose CT scan of the chest

26
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In multiple myeloma, what does the mnemonic CRAB stand for?

HyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions

27
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Which serum test detects monoclonal proteins in suspected multiple myeloma?

Serum protein electrophoresis with immunofixation

28
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Which major cancer has an 11 % five-year survival rate, making it the most lethal?

Pancreatic cancer

29
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Name the tumor marker often elevated in pancreatic cancer and used for prognosis.

CA 19-9

30
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Absence of guarding and only mild leukocytosis in an older adult may still indicate what abdominal emergency?

Acute abdomen

31
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List two atypical presentations of acute myocardial infarction in older adults.

Dyspnea without chest pain, or nausea/epigastric discomfort

32
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Which organism remains the predominant cause of community-acquired pneumonia in elders?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

33
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Name two drug classes that commonly cause constipation in older adults.

Iron supplements and opioids (others include CCBs, anticholinergics)

34
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What daily dietary fiber intake is recommended for chronic constipation management?

25–35 g of fiber

35
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Give one example of a bulk-forming laxative.

Psyllium (Metamucil)

36
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Which scale uses six basic functions like bathing and feeding to measure independence?

Katz Index of ADLs

37
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Name the bedside test that times a patient rising, walking, turning, and sitting to assess fall risk.

Get Up and Go (Timed Up and Go) test

38
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Meeting three or more Fried criteria classifies an older adult as what?

Frail

39
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A Mini-Mental State Examination score of 10–20 indicates what severity?

Moderate cognitive impairment/dementia

40
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How many words are used in the recall portion of the Mini-Cog test?

Three words

41
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What reversible syndrome presents with acute confusion often triggered by infection or medication?

Delirium

42
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What term describes evening agitation and confusion seen in dementia?

Sundowning phenomenon

43
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Which drug class is first-line for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil)

44
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Which NMDA receptor antagonist is added in moderate-to-severe Alzheimer’s disease?

Memantine

45
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Name the four classic "A's" of Alzheimer’s disease.

Amnesia, Aphasia, Apraxia, Agnosia

46
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An action tremor that improves with small amounts of alcohol most likely represents what diagnosis?

Essential tremor

47
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Which non-selective beta-blocker is first-line therapy for essential tremor?

Propranolol

48
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The USPSTF recommends routine osteoporosis screening for women beginning at what age?

65 years

49
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What DEXA T-score defines osteoporosis?

−2.5 or lower

50
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Give one key counseling point when prescribing oral bisphosphonates.

Take with full glass of water upon awakening and stay upright ≥30 min

51
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Which selective estrogen receptor modulator treats osteoporosis and lowers breast cancer risk?

Raloxifene

52
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The classic triad of Parkinson disease includes tremor, rigidity and what third feature?

Bradykinesia

53
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What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for symptomatic Parkinson disease?

Carbidopa–levodopa (Sinemet)

54
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Urine leakage with coughing or laughing is which type of incontinence?

Stress incontinence

55
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Sudden strong urge followed by involuntary urine loss defines what incontinence type?

Urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

56
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Frequent dribbling due to an over-filled bladder, often seen in BPH, represents which incontinence type?

Overflow incontinence

57
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What non-pharmacologic therapy is first-line for all types of urinary incontinence?

Lifestyle modification plus pelvic floor (Kegel) exercises

58
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Which SNRI can be prescribed for stress urinary incontinence?

Duloxetine

59
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Name an anticholinergic medication used for overactive bladder.

Oxybutynin

60
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Older adults often present with UTI as acute confusion even without what typical infection sign?

Fever

61
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What document lists potentially inappropriate medications for older adults?

American Geriatrics Society Beers Criteria

62
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Which antihypertensive class can increase falls in elders by causing orthostatic hypotension?

Alpha-blockers

63
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List two geriatric syndromes that may be precipitated by anticholinergic drugs.

Constipation and delirium (also dizziness, urinary incontinence)

64
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What is the most common infection overall in adults aged >65?

Urinary tract infection

65
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Exposure to radon is associated with which cancer type?

Lung cancer

66
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Which two inflammatory markers are usually elevated in giant cell arteritis?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)

67
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What visual complication makes giant cell arteritis an ophthalmologic emergency?

Irreversible blindness from ischemic optic neuropathy

68
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Which staging system is used for colorectal cancer?

TNM (Tumor-Node-Metastasis) staging

69
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Which colon-cancer screening modality is recommended every 10 years for average-risk adults?

Colonoscopy

70
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Low-dose CT lung screening should be discontinued when a former smoker has quit for how many years?

15 years

71
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A Mini-Cog score of 0–2 suggests what diagnosis?

Dementia

72
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What hallmark protein deposit is found in the brains of Alzheimer patients?

Beta-amyloid plaques

73
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Give one lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis.

Physical inactivity (others: low calcium, smoking, high alcohol/caffeine)

74
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Name a weight-bearing exercise beneficial in osteoporosis management.

Walking (others: jogging, yoga, tai-chi, aerobic dance)

75
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What daily supplementation is recommended for osteoporosis management?

Calcium 1,200 mg plus vitamin D 800 IU

76
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Which parathyroid hormone analog has a black box warning for osteosarcoma in rats?

Teriparatide (Forteo)

77
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Abrupt cessation of dopamine agonists in Parkinson patients may cause what syndrome?

Dopamine agonist withdrawal syndrome

78
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What bladder-emptying technique can help overflow incontinence?

Double voiding

79
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A Get Up and Go time significantly longer than 12–14 seconds indicates what?

Increased fall risk

80
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What is the most common histologic type of lung cancer?

Non-small cell lung carcinoma

81
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Pain or fatigue in the jaw while chewing in giant cell arteritis is called what?

Jaw claudication

82
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Gait dysfunction, cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence due to excess CSF with normal pressure describe which condition?

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

83
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Which brief 3-minute test combines three-word recall with clock drawing to screen cognition?

Mini-Cog test

84
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Early visual hallucinations and marked sensitivity to antipsychotics are characteristic of which dementia type?

Dementia with Lewy bodies

85
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The USPSTF lung-cancer screening age range for high-risk adults is what?

50–80 years

86
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What staging imaging is most accurate for localizing and biopsying suspicious colorectal lesions?

Colonoscopy with biopsy