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what does a clinical microbiologist help perform regarding one of its three roles?
helps perform cultures of microorganisms from patient specimens
what does a clinical microbiology do after isolation regarding one of its three roles?
classifies and identifies the microorganism after isolation through staining and biochemical reactions
what does a clinical microbiologist do related to a microorganisms patterns regarding one of its three roles?
predicts and interprets antimicrobial susceptibility patterns through its cell structure and biochemical pathways
what is the cell structure of a eukaryote?
more complex than the prokaryotic cell structure —> fungi, parasites, viruses
cytoplasmic structure = has nucleus, nucleolus, ER, and golgi
cell envelope structure = has a plasma membrane, cell wall, and organelles
more specifically, what is in the cytoplasmic structures within a eukaryotic cell? explain their roles too
nucleus contains DNA in the discrete chromosomes and is bound by bilayered lipoprotein nuclear membrane (IMPORTANT)
nucleolus = site of rRNA synthesis
endoplasmic reticulum which is rough covered with ribosome (protein synthesis) and smooth-synthesize phospholipids
golgi apparatus = modifies and packages proteins that is sent by rough ER
what are the membrane bound organelles in a eukaryotic cell? what are their roles?
mitochondria = energy production
lysosomes = degrade microorganisms in cell
peroxisomes = break down in H2O2
chloroplasts = energy production in plants
more specifically, what are the cell envelope structures in the eukaryotic cell?
its plasma membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer that is embedded with proteins and cholesterol
plasma membrane envelops the cytoplasm and regulates transport of chemical that go in and out of the cell
cell wall is rigid and only fungi will have chitin
the way it moves is through cilia and flagella
what is the cell structure of a prokaryote?
small and has less compartments
has no nucleus
cell envelope structure = plasma membrane and cell walla
has surface polymers = capsule and appendages
helps stick to a eukaryotic cell
more specifically, what is the cytoplasmic structure of the prokaryotic cell?
often will see a single circular chromosome attached to the mesosome in the cell membrane
ribosomes which are the site of protein synthesis will be free in the cytoplasm
cytoplasmic granules which store granules like polysaccharides, lipids, or polyphosphates in the cytoplasm
can form endospores which is the response to a harsh environment
dormant asexual spores that have a thick protein coat that is highly resistant to things that will kill it like chemical agents, UV, dehydration, dessication, gamma radiation, and temperature changes
when favorable conditions arise, it germinates
what is the principal component of a gram positive cell wall?
its wall is composed of a THICK protective peptidoglycan (murein) layer
what does the gram positive cell wall absorb?
absorbs the primary stain, crystal violet, but is not dissolved by alcohol which gives its purple color
how do antibiotics like penicillin act on a gram positive cell wall?
acts by preventing the synthesis of peptidoglycan
what are the two things unique to the gram positive cell wall?
teichoic acid which is anchored to peptidoglycan
lipteichoic acid which is anchored to the plasma membrane
what are the layers in a gram-negative bacteria? what is unique in the gram negative cell wall?
has two layers —> a thin INNER peptidoglycan layer and an additional outer membrane that is unique to the gram-negative bacteria
periplasmic space which is a gel-like area that is between outer and inner membrane and contains nutrient-binding proteins and detoxifyinng enzymes
what does the additional outer membrane of the gram-negative cell wall contain? what does it function as? what is LPS?
it contains proteins, phospholipids, lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
it functions as a barrier to harmful substances, attachment sites to the host cell, and acts as a sieve which allows water soluble molecules to come into the cell
LPS Lipid A which is an endotoxin is responsible for fever and shock conditions in patients who are infected with gram-neg bacteria and is often the cause of septicemia
what are the three different shapes of bacteria?
cocci → spherical
bacilli → rod-shaped
spirochetes → spiral
how can cocci be arranged?
singles
pairs
chains
clusters
how can bacilli be arranged?
fusiform which has taper, pointed ends
curved
single
chains
palisading which is aligned side by side
what does pleomorphic mean?
variation in size and shape which could range from 0.4 um to 2 um
what is the prokaryotic surface polymer, capsule?
it is an organized polysaccharide or polypeptide structure that prevents phagocytosis and can adhere to surfaces
why does the capsule need to be removed during serologic typing? give an example
it needs to be removed to be able to detect the antigen underneath the capsule
ex. salmonella typhi’s capsule needs to be removed to see agglutination with salmonella somatic antisera
what does the capsule look like with india ink?
capsule shows itself as a clear halo-like structure
what is the prokaryotic surface polymers, slime layers?
similar to capsules but has more spread-out layers
has polysaccharides which inhibit phagocytosis and help with adhering to host tissues or synthetic implants like the hip
what is the order for gram staining?
crystal violet which is the primary stain for one minute
iodine for one minute
a mordant which fixes the iodine
alcohol or alcohol-acetone which is quickly added and then rinsed
a decolorizer that washes out the crystal violet out of a gram negative cell and retains the gram positive stain
safranin for 30 seconds which is a pink counter stain
what is an acid fast stain? what do you have to do to the cell wall?
stains bacteria with high lipid and wax content in the cell wall like mycobacteria, nocardia, and rhodococcus
has to treat the cell wall to allow the penetration of dye
heat like the ziehl-neelson
detergent like kinyoun
what is the order to do the acid fast stain?
primary stain → carbolfuchsin which is red
acidified alcohol which is a decolorizer
methylene blue which is a counterstain
the acid fast bacteria retains the red primary stain
what is flurochrome? what do you need to see it?
a fluorescent stain that is selective for the acid fast cell wall and stains it yellow or orangeacid-fast
need a fluorescent microscope
what is the growth media, minimal medium?
simple and completely defined
what is the growth media, nutrient medium?
more complex and uses meat or soy extracts in its media
is a nutrient broth, trypticase soy broth
what is enriched media? what are its growth factors?
it is blood agar and chocolate agar
growth factors are blood, vitamins, and yeast extract
what is selective media? give an example
allows some microorganisms and some not
ex. macconkey (pink) for gram negative, PEA for gram positive
what is differential media? give an example
allows the metabolic differences between different groups or species of bacteria to be visualized
ex: macconkey lactose fermenters (pink)
what is transport media? give examples
prevents growth of microorganisms and preserves viability for transport to a lab
ex: cary blair, amies, stuart broth
what is obligate aerobe?
MUST require O2
what is obligate anaerobe?
cannot grow in O2
what is facultative anaerobe?
grow either with or without O2
what is aerotolerant anaerobe? give an example
survives in O2 but doesnt use O2 for metabolism
ex. some Clostridium
what is capnophilic? give an example
an increased concentration of CO2 is required (5—10% CO2)
ex. neisseria
what is microaerophilic?
a reduced concentration of oxygen required (5-6%)
ex. campylobacter
what does bacterial metabolism consist of?
consists of reactions that bacteria uses to break down organic compounds and to synthesize new components
how is bacteria biochemistry and metabolism regulated?
its regulated by the presence/production and or the activity/inhibition of specific bacteria enzymes
what differs in bacteria’s biochemistry and metabolism?
differs in their ability to use various compounds as metabolic substrates and the end products that are generated
what are the three things that diagnostic schemes analyze unknown microorganisms for?
utilization of substrate as a carbon source
production of certain end products from multiple different substrates
production of acid or alkaline pH in the test medium which produces a color change
what is the EMP glycolytic pathway?
it is a major pathway that converts glucose to pyruvate
generates reducing power in the form of NADH2
generates energy in the form of ATP
aerobic
what is the pentose phosphate pathway?
not much energy is produced and is a detour off the EMP pathway
generally functions to generate NADPH for biosynthesis and provide pentoses for nucleotide synthesis
can generate ATP but is less than the EMP pathway
some bacteria have a shortage on the enzymes needed for glycolysis so uses PPP instead
what is the entner-doudoroff pathway?
converts glucose-6-phosphate to pyruvic acid
generates NADPH and is an aerobic process that is used by some bacteria that lack the enzymes for glycolysis
what can organisms that ferment lactose do?
ferment glucose
what is mRNA?
carries the genetic information that is needed to make proteins
what is tRNA and rRNA?
tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome and rRNA is the site of protein synthesis
what is symbiosis?
two organisms living together
what is commensalism?
when the microorganism benefits and the host is not harmed
ex. proteus mirabillis in the GI tract
what is mutualism?
both the microorganism and the host benefit
ex. lactobacillus in urogenital area
what is parasitism?
the microorganism benefits but the host is harmed
ex. entamoeba histolytica
why is the stomach usually sterile? what are the exceptions?
acidic pH destroys microorganisms; however, some exceptions would be endospores (C. diff), parasitic cysts, and H. pylori which can live in the acidic environment
how would other pathogens entire the GI tract and alter the normal microbial flora of the GI tract?
pathogens would enter through food particles and escapes the stomach and enters the intestine then colonizes the small and large intestines (obligate and facultative anaerobes)
how can antibiotics disrupt the usual microbial flora of the GI tract?
eradicates or suppresses certain populations of the flora which causes other indigenous flora to multiply
what are opportunistic infections?
occurs because of a weakened immune system and cause disease when habitat is changed (reason why C. diff affects those who are on antibiotics)
what is the two purposes of normal microbial flora?
primes the immune system
changes the microenvironment to block/forbid colonization of pathogens
what is pathogenicity?
ability of an organism to produce disease
what are opportunistic pathogens?
pathogens that usually do not cause infection unless under special cirucumstances
what are true pathogens?
organisms that cause disease in healthy hosts with normal immune systems
what are iatrogenic infections?
happen due to medical treatment or procedures
how does the host resistance factor, physical barrier effective in preventing pathogens?
it is a mechanical barrier like how skin is effective against most pathogens
what are the three cleansing mechanisms that help hosts be resistance?
desquamation/shedding of skin
movement of liquids like through tears, urine, mucus secretion (blowing nose)
cilia due to it clearing debris by moving to one place to another
how does low pH make a host resistance?
prevents bacteria from colonizing like in the stomach and vagina
what does indigenous microbial flora do relating to host resistance?
prevents pathogen colonization
what are the four antimicrobial substances that make hosts resistant?
fatty acids on skin (prevents colonization)
HCl in the stomach
lysozymes (degrades microbes and other foreign invaders)
immune proteins
what are the four immune proteins?
IgA
low molecular weight cationic proteins like beta-lysins
complement which synergize to increase the effectiveness of killing
interferon
how are primary infections surveilled?
infection is related to a SINGLE, specific site
how are blood stream infections (BSI) surveilled?
infection was found in the bloodstream
how are central line-associated bloodstream infections surveilled?
infection is due to the presence of an intravascular device like a central venous catheter
how are surgical site infections surveilled? how is risk formed?
infection is at the site where the surgery happened
risk is often formed due to the length of surgery, site of the infection, and the degree of the anticipated contamination
how are UTI’s surveilled?
infection due to the urinary tract which is frequently associated with a urinary catheter
how is ventilator-associated pneumonia surveilled?
pneumonia in the patient is related with a ventilator device like an endotracheal tube or trachetomy
what is total surveillance? how is the infection rate determined?
all of the infections are recorded, analyzed, and risk is assessed
the infection rate is determine and analyzed and compared to a established baseline
how is SSI rates defined related to total surveillance?
number of infections divided by number of procedures reported as a percent
how is CLABSI and VAP rated defined related to total surveillance?
number of infections divided by 1000 device days
what is targeted surveillance?
due budget or personnel restraints
infection rates are monitored and a close watch is kept on specific, high-risk, and high-volume procedures
what are the five ways data gathered and supported in the laboratory?
isolates are identifies
antimicrobial susceptibility patterns
specimen contamination rates
number of isolates per site
number of isolates per hospital unit
how are trends identified in infections?
finding the normal rate/baseline data of previously found data on infection rates
what is an outbreak related to how trends are identifies?
upward trend of infection above the baseline data which may be associated with specific patients and/or procedures
what are the two reporting requirements for Nevada?
requires reporting from a VARIETY of professions like labs, physicians, vets, college admins. and correctional institutes
labs must submit SPECIFIC bacterial isolates to the state public health lab (will have specific criteria)
what is sterilization?
destruction of ALL forms of life including sores
what is disinfection?
elimination of a defined scope of microorganisms and a chemical agent is applied to it
what is an antiseptic?
substance that is applied to the skin to eliminate OR reduce the number of bacteria that is present but does NOT kill spores
what are the three factors in disinfection? explain why each factor is important
concentration of disinfecting agents
make sure its not TOO concentrated or TOO diluted because it is not effective if its too concentrated or too diluted
presence of organic material like blood, mucus, pus
inactivates the chemical agents and essentially coats the surface that needs to be treated which prevents the interaction between the chemical and the microorganism
nature of surface being disinfected
will the chemical agent damage the surface or does the time of exposure need to be altered?
what is isopropyl alcohol?
a flammable, broad spectrum antiseptic but is NOT sporicidal
to remove spores, filter through 0.22 micron filters
inactived by organic material (clean hands first)
works by denaturing proteins but must be used in 60%-90% concentration but MUST be evaporated from the surface
what is isopropyl alcohol used for?
used as a handwash
surgical hand scrub
patient preoperative skin prep
housekeeping disinfectant
what is the goal with handwashing?
eliminate transient flora which is contracted from the environment but also protect skin’s resident or normal flora
what is quality control?
measures designed to ensure the medical reliability of lab data
what are the three stages for lab workload? explain them
preanalytical = ordering test, collecting specimen, identifying specimen, transporting specimen
analytic = sample testing
postanalytical = results delivered and action is taken based on the result
what is quality assurance?
taking measures that ensures high-quality patient care
what needs to be checked on daily regarding their temperatures?
incubators
heating blocks
water baths
refrigerators
freezers
why are NIST calibrated thermometers used?
has appropriate correction factors and does not use mercury
how is QC susceptibility testing done?
done on american type culture collection control organisms because they give STANDARDIZED results
what are the variables that affect the accuracy of antimicrobial susceptibility QC results?
antibiotic potency
agar depth
evaporation
cation content
pH
instrument failure
inoculum concentration
difficulty in determining endpoints
what is personnel competency?
ensures that the individual is competent through verification, documentation, and obtaining continuing education credits each year
required under CLIA and individual needs to be reverified each year with proof in their file
how are stock cultured used?
utilized to test various media to make sure it is working correctly or competency testing
what are the four sources that stock cultures can come from?
commercial sources
proficiency testing isolates
patient isolates
ATCC
how should cultures be grown? what can be done with them?
should be grown in broth-large batch
can make single-use aliquots which can be stored in the freezer for a year
take a new vial each week to prevent mutations from subculture and subculture twice after thawing to return it to healthy state