ATPL (Philippines) - Navigation 2

1. When an aircraft is FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:

a. 9 nm

b. 0

c. 6 nm

d. 12 nm

c. 6 nm

2. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:

a. a constant track

b. a great circle track

c. a rhumb line track

d. a constant heading

b. a great circle track

3. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmission from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:

a. 200 nm

b. 243 nm

c. 220 nm

d. 275 nm

d. 275 nm

4. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

a. static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

b. lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

c. station interference, mountain effect, selective availability

d. coastal refraction, slant range, night effect

b. lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

5. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?

a. interference from other NDB's, particularly at night

b. interference between aircraft aerials

c. interference from other NDB's, particularly by day

d. frequency drift at the ground station

a. interference from other NDB's, particularly at night

6. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

a. +/-2deg

b. +/-1deg

c. +/-5deg

d. +/-10deg

c. +/-5deg

7. The period of validity of the navigational database is:

a. 30 days

b. 21 days

c. 35 days

d. 28 days

d. 28 days

8. The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is:

a. 1 nm

b. 5 nm

c. 3 nm

d. 0.5 nm

a. 1 nm

9. An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft amsl. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?

a. 198 nm

b. 222 nm

c. 175 nm

d. 210 nm

b. 222 nm

10. A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:

a. they are co-located

b. they are widely separated and do not serve the same location

c. they are a maximum distance of 30m apart

d. they are more than 600 m apart but serve the same location

d. they are more than 600 m apart but serve the same location

11. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of

a. 1025 MHz

b. 1030 MHz

c. 902 Mhz

d. 962 Mhz

a. 1025 MHz

12. The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is:

a. +/- 10deg out to 8 nm

b. +/- 10deg out to 25 nm

c. +/- 8deg out to 10 nm

d. +/- 35deg out to 17 nm

c. +/- 8deg out to 10 nm

13. The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:

a. continuous dots at a rate of 6 per second, white light

b. a series of 2 dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light

c. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light

d. alternate dots and dashes at the rate of 2 per second, blue light

c. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light

14. The coverage of an ILS localiser extends to ______ either side of the on course line out to a range of .... Nm

a. 60 deg, 14nm

b. 35 deg, 17nm

c. 10 deg, 25nm

b. 35 deg, 17nm

15. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level?

a. 279 nm

b. 281 nm

c. 275 nm

d. 285 nm

b. 281 nm

16. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000'would expect to obtain from a VOR beacon situated 900'above mean sea level?

a. 235 nm

b. 238 nm

c. 230 nm

d. 240 nm

a. 235 nm

17. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 feet above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18,000 feet?

a. 200 nm

b. 208 nm

c. 211 nm

d. 205 nm

d. 205 nm

18. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:

a. green, yellow, amber

b. blue, green, orange

c. green, yellow, red

d. black, yellow, amber

c. green, yellow, red

19. The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained within the DOC is:

a. plus or minus 10deg

b. plus or minus 1deg

c. plus or minus 5deg

d. plus or minus 2deg

c. plus or minus 5deg

20. The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is

a. 156 knots

b. 265 knots

c. 200 knots

d. 230 knots

b. 265 knots

21. Which is true regarding the use of a SID chart?

a. At airfields where SID's have been established, SID usage is mandatory for IFR departures

b. To use a SID, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure

c. To use a SID, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure

c. To use a SID, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure

22. what does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view of an approach chart indicate?

a. a racetracktype approach procedure turn is authorized

b. A procedure turn is not authorized

c. teardrop style procedure turn is authorized

b. A procedure turn is not authorized

23. which is true regarding STAR's

a. STAR's are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic

b. STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

c. STAR's are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion

b. STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

24. If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be

a. alternate minimums shown on the approach sheet

b. minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums"

c. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

c. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

25. When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antennae?)

a. 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

b. plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR

c. 6° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

a. 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

26. When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

a. standard alternate minimums

b. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

c. the IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport

b. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

27. As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?

a. One or more miles for 1000 feet of altitude above the facility

b. two miles or more for each 1000 feet of altitude above the facility

c. no specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight

a. One or more miles for 1000 feet of altitude above the facility

28. Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

a. Slant range distance in SM

b. Slant range distance in NM.

c. Line of sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM

b. Slant range distance in NM.

29. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?

a. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC

b. High altitudes close to the VORTAC

c. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC

b. High altitudes close to the VORTAC

30. When VOT to make a VOR reciever check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

a. 180 radial

b. 090 radial

c. 360 radial

c. 360 radial

31. Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?

a. Pressure

b. Calibrated

c. Indicated

a. Pressure

To remain on the ILS glidepath, rate of descent must be ?

a. decreased if airspeed is increased

b. decreased if groundspeed is increased

c. increased if groundspeed is increased

c. increased if groundspeed is increased

33. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?

a. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.

b. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

c. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

b. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

34. What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?

a. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other.

b. The entire route must be within radar environment.

c. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

b. The entire route must be within radar environment.

35. How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan?

a. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude.

b. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM.

c. Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

a. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude.

36. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?

a. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.

b. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.

c. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

a. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.

37. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?

a. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible

b. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC.

c. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

c. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

38. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as filed' include?

a. Clearance limit, transponder code, and SID, if appropriate.

b. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and SID, if appropriate.

c. Clearance limit and en route altitude.

b. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and SID, if appropriate.

39. In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?

a. 'Vectors' provided for navigational guidance or 'Pilot NAV' with courses the pilot is responsible to follow.

b. 'Vectors' and 'Pilot NAV' for pilots to use at their discretion.

c. Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions

a. 'Vectors' provided for navigational guidance or 'Pilot NAV' with courses the pilot is responsible to follow.

40. What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC?

a. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

b. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.

c. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

c. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

41. What is the latest point in which a missed approach climb be executed for obstacle clearance protection?

a. For an ILS, on glidepath of the DA

b. For a straight in localizer, or ILS, at the middle marker

c. For a straight in localizer, no later than the departure end of teh runway (DER)

c. For a straight in localizer, no later than the departure end of teh runway (DER)

42. What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a fullscale deflection of CDI?

a. 12

b. 10

c. 4

c. 4

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glideslope at constant true airspeed?

a. when groundspeed decreases, rate of descent must increase

b. rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glideslope

c. when groundspeed increases, rate of descent must increase

c. when groundspeed increases, rate of descent must increase

44. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

a. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

b. one microburst may continue for as long as 2-4 hours

c. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute

a. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

45. If you notice that one of your VHF transmitter lights is illuminated, you know

a. it should be illuminated when you are talking to ATC

b. it means the radio is on

c. the radio is performing a self test

a. it should be illuminated when you are talking to ATC

46. ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

a. 30 NM of a VOR.

b. 25 NM of a VOR.

c. 22 NM of a VOR.

c. 22 NM of a VOR.