Biology Final

What level of protein structure would be disrupted if you eliminated the disulfide bonds in a protein?

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Quaternary

E. Both C and D

E. Both C and D

Your research team has identified a molecule that seems to be involved in signaling between cells. What type of molecule could it be?

A. Protein

B. Carbohydrate

C. Lipid

D. DNA

E. Either A or C

E. Either A or C

Which of these characteristics is NOT a requirement for a molecule being organic?

A. Organic molecules must have carbon

B. Organic molecules must have oxygen

C. Organic molecules must have hydrogen

D. Organic molecules must have covalent bond between carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen

E. Organic molecules must not be fully oxidized

B. Organic molecules must have oxygen

Scientists have discovered a new plant species on the island of Borneo that they are now studying to see what kinds of chemical compounds it produces. What types of chemical bonds should they be looking for to help identify what types of sugars the plant makes?

A. Glycosydic

B. Phosphodiester

C. Peptide

D. Ionic

E. Hydrogen

A. Glycosydic

Scientists have discovered a new version of the bacteria Bascillus Subtilus in the Death Valley California, one of the hottest places on the planet. How would bacterial membrane composition differ in this version of the bacteria when compared to bacteria in a cooler climate.

A. Higher ratio of unsaturated fatty acids and more hoponoids

B. Higher ratio of saturated fatty acids and more cholesterol

C. Higher ratio of unsaturated fatty acids and more cholesterol

D. Higher ratio of saturated fatty acids and more hoponoids

E. Higher ratio of unsaturated fatty acids and less hoponoids

D. Higher ratio of saturated fatty acids and more hoponoids

Kidney stones are often caused by high levels of calcium oxolate in the extracellular portion of the urinary tract. How would water consumption need to change in a person with kidney stones when compared to a person without kidney stones and why?

A. Water consumption would need to be higher as more water would flow from the kidney cells to the urinary tract

B. Water consumption would need to be higher as more water would flow from the kidney cells into the urinary tract

C. Water consumption would need to be lower as less water would flow from the kidney cells into the urinary tract

D. Water consumption would need to be lower as less water would flow from the kidney cells to the urinary tract

E. Water consumption would not need to change

B. Water consumption would need to be higher as more water would flow from the kidney cells to the urinary tract

Which of these statements is NOT TRUE about the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes?

A. Fatty acids can move freely around one side of the membrane

B. Sterols help form lipid rafts in the cellular membrane

C. Many proteins are able to move around in the cellular membrane

D. Fatty acids can flip back and forth between sides of the membrane

E. All of these are true statements

D. Fatty acids can flip back and forth between sides of the membrane

Your lungs have a large surface area due to the presence of alveoli branches. When looking at oxygen gas consumption why is this increased surface area important?

A. It allows for more room for oxygen protein channels and facilitated diffusion

B. It allows for more room for oxygen protein channels and active transport

C. It allows for more room for simple diffusion

D. It allows for more room for oxygen protein channels and simple diffusion

E. It allows for more room for facilitated diffusion

C. It allows for more room for simple diffusion

The SARS-COV-2 spike protein is located in the viral membrane. The SARS-COV-2 virus uses the cellular machinery of cells it infects to make its necessary proteins. Given these factors where would the SARS-COV-2 spike protein be produced?

A. In the cytoplasm by free ribosomes

B. In the golgi

C. In the lumen space of the endoplasmic reticulum

D. In the rough endoplasmic reticulum

E. In the plasma membrane

D. In the rough endoplasmic reticulum

Infection with the Hepatitis C virus can lead to a process called golgi fragmentation which causes the loss of function of the golgi complex. In severe cases of HepC where golgi fragmentation occurred what would be the affect on cell processes?

A. No protein modifications would occur

B. No protein would be produced

C. RNA would not leave the nucleus

D. The nuclear membrane would lose integrity

E. No microtubules would be produced

A. No protein modifications would occur

Paclitaxel is a drug that has some promise in anti-cancer therapies because it affects proper microtubule function. Which of these cellular functions would be directly impacted by the addition of this drug?

A. Muscle contraction

B. Cell division

C. Nuclear anchoring

D. Protein synthesis

E. Movement of secretory vesicles

E. Movement of secretory vesicles

You are presented with two cells and asked to identify which is the eukaryote and which is a prokaryote. Which of the following structures would be MOST useful in differentiating the cells?

A. Type of fatty acid present

B. Presence of mitochondria

C. Presence of ribosomes

D. Presence of DNA

E. Type carbohydrates present

B. Presence of mitochondria

A competitive inhibitor is added to a cell. In what way could you increase enzymatic activity in the presence of this competitive inhibitor?

A. Increase the concentration of the competitive inhibitor

B. Increase the concentration of the substrate

C. Add a non-competitive inhibitor

D. Decrease the concentration of the substrate

E. Heat the cells up

B. Increase the concentration of the substrate

Formation of a peptide bond has a delta G of approximately 17.3 kJ/mol. What type of reaction is this peptide bond formation and approximately how many moles of ATP need to be used in order for the reaction to proceed (ATP to ADP -30 kJ/mol)?

A. Exergonic, 0

B. Exergonic, 1

C. Endergonic, 0

D. Endergonic, 1

E. Endergonic, 2

D. Endergonic, 1

How are organisms able to follow the 2nd law of thermodynamics while maintaining homeostasis in their bodies?

A. Living organisms convert energy into matter

B. Living organisms increase the entropy within themselves

C. Living organisms use enthalpy to increase their delta G

D. Living organisms increase the entropy in the environment around them

E. Living organisms break the 2nd law of thermodynamics

D. Living organisms increase the entropy in the environment around them

Glycolysis is an example of substrate level phosphorylation because:

A. The chemical energy from glucose allows ATP synthase to work

B. It creates pyruvate

C. The energy from breaking a bond in glucose is coupled with ATP phosphorylation

D. NAD+ turns into NADH

E. Carbon dioxide is produced

C. The energy from breaking a bond in glucose is coupled with ATP phosphorylation

In the electron transport chain electrons move from Complex II to Co-enzyme Q. Which of these statements is true about this interaction?

A. Co-enzyme II is reduced and coenzyme Q is oxidized

B. Co-enzyme II is reduced and coenzyme Q is reduced

C. Co-enzyme II is oxidized and coenzyme Q is oxidized

D. Co-enzyme II is oxidized and coenzyme Q is reduced

E. None of the above

D. Co-enzyme II is oxidized and coenzyme Q is reduced

Alpha-cyano-4-hydroxycinnimate blocks pyruvate oxidation. What would be the effect on oxidative phosphorylation in cells exposed to this compound?

A. Oxygen consumption would increase

B. The proton gradient would decrease

C. The proton gradient would increase

D. NADH production would increase

E. Both A and B

B. The proton gradient would decrease

If life exists on Mars it would most likely live under the Martian surface, meaning no sunlight. There is also a lack of organic carbon sources on the planet. Given this information if life was discovered on Mars what type of metabolism would it most likely have?

A. Chemoheterotrophy

B. Chemoautotrophy

C. Photoheterotrophy

D. Photoautotrophy

E. None of the above

B. Chemoautotrophy

What is one example of the terminal electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?

A. Oxygen

B. CO2

C. NAD+

D. CH4

E. NO3

E. NO3

Knowing the location of which of these process would NOT help you distinguish between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?

A. Glycolysis

B. Citric acid cycle

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

D. Pyruvate oxidation

E. Calvin cycle

A. Glycolysis

Amino acid catabolism can produce products that enter into the metabolism process at the end of glycolysis and directly into the citric acid cycle. What are two of the possible end products of amino acid catabolism?

A. Pyruvate and Acetyl-CoA

B. Lactic acid and Pyruvate

C. Lactic acid and glucose

D. Glucose and pyruvate

E. Lactic acid and acetyl-coA

A. Pyruvate and Acetyl-CoA

Which of these byproducts of fermentation give beer its notable characteristics?

A. Lactic acid

B. CO2

C. Ethanol

D. Both A and B

E. Both B and C

E. Both B and C

Cells utilize fermentation under anaerobic conditions, what is the purpose of fermentation?

A. To produce ATP

B. To produce pyruvate

C. To produce NADH

D. To feed electrons into the electron transport chain

E. To oxidize NADH

E. To oxidize NADH

Deciduous trees lose their leaves during the colder months, how do these organisms generate energy during these months?

A. Fermentation

B. Oxygenic photosynthesis

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

D. Photophosphorylation

E. Phototrophy

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

Which of these is a similarity between oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation?

A. They both reduce NADH/NADPH

B. They both have electron transport chains

C. They both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor

D. They both use light energy to excite electrons

E. There are no similarities

B. They both have electron transport chains

You have isolated a new bacteria in the steppes of Siberia. You believe this organism only uses light for energy. Base or your experimental observations you suspect it is a phototrophic organism. Which photosystem(s) would this organism have and how could you tell?

A. Photosystem I only, reduce NADP and use an ETC

B. Photosystem I only, use an ETC

C. Photosystem II only, reduce NADP and use an ETC

D. Photosystem II only, use an ETC

E. Both photosystems, reduce NADP and use an ETC

D. Photosystem II only, use an ETC

Which of these innovations was the most important step for the development of oxygenic photosynthesis?

A. Photosystem I evolving the ability to split water

B. Photosystem II evolving the ability to split water

C. Photosystem I and photosystem II being paired together

D. Photosystem II being paired with ATP synthase

E. Phostosystem I being paired with ATP synthase

C. Photosystem I and photosystem II being paired together

What molecules used in the Calvin Cycle come directly from the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A. H20 and NADPH

B. CO2 and H20

C. ATP, H20, and NADPH

D. ATP and CO2

E. ATP and NADPH

E. ATP and NADPH

The majority of actual weight (dry biomass) gained by plants as they progress from seed to adult plant comes from which one of the following substances?

A. Particles in the soil taken up by plant roots

B. Molecules in the air that enter through holes in a plants leaves

C. Substances dissolved in water taken up by the plant roots

D. Energy from the sun

B. Molecules in the air that enter through holes in a plants leaves

Maltose is a common disaccharide. How many turns of the Calvin Cycle would be needed to form one molecule of maltose?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

D. 4

You are a botanist who has identified a new species of weed that has begun growing in farmers crops all over Georgia. How would you be able to identify if this plant was a C4 plant?

A. Oxygenase activity of rubisco

B. It would not have Rubisco

C. It would have PEP-carboxylase

D. The end product of the Calvin Cycle would be a 4 carbon sugar

E. Both B and C

C. It would have PEP-carboxylase

Which of the following steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?

A. Separation of sister chromatids

B. Separation of homologous chromosomes

C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes

D. Formation of haploid daughter cells

E. Formation of chiasma

A. Separation of sister chromatids

Most cells in an adult human body are at what stage of the cell cycle?

A. G0

B. G1

C. G2

D. S

E. M

A. G0

The gene that controls brown or blue eye color is located on chromosome 15 and has two alleles, B is the dominant allele and b is the recessive allele. If you are heterozygous for the eye color gene (Bb) with the B allele from your father and b allele from your mother, the dominant B allele will be located:

A. In all of your cells

B. Only in your eye cells

C. In all of your somatic (body) cells and half of your gametes

D. In your gametes only

E. In only the cells you got from your father

C. In all of your somatic (body) cells and half of your gametes

Mendel's law of segregation is explained by which of the below events?

A. Sister chromosomes separate during anaphase II

B. Replicated chromosomes condense during prophase II

C. Replicated chromosomes align randomly during metaphase II

D. Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I

E. Homologous chromosomes synapse during prophase I

D. Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I

Probability is calculated using addition when they are:

A. Independent

B. Mutually exclusive

C. Equally likely

D. Disproportionate

E. Dependent

B. Mutually exclusive

The presence of freckles is controlled by the gene MCR1 and is a recessive trait (f). If Sven has freckles and Alyssa does not what are the chances of them having a baby with freckles if there is an equal chance that Alyssa is homozygous dominant or heterozygous for MCR1?

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 3/8

D. 1/2

E. 1/16

B. 1/4

Red hair is controlled by the MCR1 gene where people with red hair are homozygous recessive for the MCR1 gene (r). In addition people with red hair must be homozygous recessive at another locus related to melanin production (M/m). Sven has red hair and Alyssa has brown hair and is heterozygous Mm and has an equal chance of being homozygous dominant and heterozygous at the MCR1 gene. What are the chances that Sven and Alyssa will have a child with red hair?

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 3/8

D. 1/2

E. 1/16

A. 1/8

Body color and wing type are each controlled by 1 gene with two alleles, with simple dominant and recessive relationships. Tan (b+) is dominant to black (b) and normal wings (vg+) is dominant to vestigial wings (vg). You cross a double homozygous "wildtype" (tan body, normal wings) to a double homozygous mutant (black body, vestigial wings). The F1 dihybrid is tan with normal wings.

You then conduct an F1 testcross where you mate the F1 to a double homozygous mutant. If genes for body color (b) and wing size (vg) are on the same chromosome, and crossing over DOES occur between the two genes, what phenotypic ratios would you predict in the F1 testcross progeny?

A. 1:1:1:1 because of the law of independent assortment.

B. 1:1:0:0 because they are fully linked on the same chromosome.

C. All wild type (1:0:0:0) because black and vestigial are masked in the heterozygous state.

D. It could be closer to 1:1:1:1 or closer to 1:1:0:0 depending on how close they are on the same chromosome.

E. None of the above

D. It could be closer to 1:1:1:1 or closer to 1:1:0:0 depending on how close they are on the same chromosome.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes muscle degeneration. A woman who is a carrier for the gene has a child with a man who does not have the disorder. What are the chances that they will have a son with the disease?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1/8

D. 1/4

E. 1/2

D. 1/4

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes muscle degeneration. If a male has the disorder what would be true for all of his daughters if his partner was homozygous dominant for the gene?

A. They will all be carriers

B. They will all be affected

C. Half of them will be carriers and half will be affected

D. Half of them will be affected and half will be unaffected

E. None will be affected or carriers

A. They will all be carriers

Hair type in humans (curly/straight) is controlled by one gene. When an individual with straight hair has a child with someone with curly hair the child has wavy hair. If someone with curly hair (HH) has offspring with someone with wavy hair (Hh), what are the chances that they would have a child with straight hair?

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 1/4

D. 1/8

E. 0

E. 0

When looking at human height there are multiple genes that add up to the total human height, while diet also plays a large role. Human height is an example of which of the following non-mendelian inheritance patterns?

A. Quantitative trait

B. Polygenic inheritance

C. Gene-by-environment

D. All of the above

E. Both A and C

D. All of the above

Blood type (ABO) is a co-dominant form of inheritance while rhesus factor (R/r) is a mendelian gene (dominant is +, recessive -). A woman who is blood type B negative has a son who is A positive and a daughter who is B negative. What would be the genotype of the mother?

A. BB, rr

B. BB, Rr

C. BO, rr

D. BO, Rr

E. AB, rr

C. BO, rr

Hair type in humans (curly/straight) is controlled by one gene. When an individual with straight hair has a child with someone with curly hair the child has wavy hair. This is an example of what type of non-mendelian inheritance pattern?

A. Co-dominance

B. Pleitropy

C. Quantitative traits

D. Incomplete dominance

E. Polygenic inheritance

D. Incomplete dominance

You have noticed something is going wrong with DNA replication in the cell culture you are studying in lab. Upon further analysis of the cells you find that DNA synthesis is occurring but there are small gaps in the replicated DNA. What protein involved in DNA replication is not functioning properly in these cells?

A. Helicase

B. Ligase

C. DNA polymerase

D. Primase

E. Single Strand Binding Protein

B. Ligase

In the Fredrick Griffith set of experiments, his group was able to convert rough strained bacteria into the virulent version by exposing them to dead virulent bacteria. Which of these conclusions could NOT be determined from the result of this experiment?

A. Dead bacteria can change the nature of live bacteria

B. Some factor from the dead bacteria can confer virulence

C. Rough bacteria transformed by the virulent bacteria are able to kill mice

D. DNA is the transformative substance from the dead virulent bacteria

E. Heritable traits can be passed on from dead bacteria

D. DNA is the transformative substance from the dead virulent bacteria

What types of bonds connect deoxyribonucleotides on the same strand of DNA?

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Ionic bonds

C. Phosphodiester bonds

D. Disulfide bonds

E. Polar bonds

C. Phosphodiester bonds

The sequence below is the beginning of the mRNA molecule produced from the INS gene. What would be the first few amino acids added to this protein?

5'-AAAUCGGUAUGCUAUGCCUAUU-3'

A. Asn-Arg-His

B. Met-Pro-Ile

C. Leu-Ser-Val

D. Met-Leu-Cys

E. Met-Ala-Lys

D. Met-Leu-Cys

Which of these processes is unique to eukaryotes?

A. Transcription and translation coupled together

B. mRNA splicing

C. RNA polymerase transcribing mRNA

D. Operons

E. Using uracil instead of thymine

B. mRNA splicing

The INS gene codes for the production of insulin in mammals. The sequence below is the first part of the template sequence of DNA for the gene. What would be the corresponding RNA produced from this sequence?

5'-CGAACTACCG-3'

A. 5'-CGAACUACCG

B. 5'-CGAACTACCG-3'

C. 5'-CGGTAGTTCG-3'

D. 5'-CGGUAGUUCG-3'

E. 5'-GCUUGAUGGC-3'

D. 5'-CGGUAGUUCG-3'

The RNA that is involved in the catalytic action of peptide bond formation is the best plentiful type of RNA in a cell. Which type of RNA is this?

A. rRNA

B. mRNA

C. siRNA

D. tRNA

E. bRNA

A. rRNA

Which mutation would be most detrimental to a protein's normal function?

A. A silent mutation

B. Nucleotide insertion at the 5' end of the gene

C. A nonsense mutation at the 3' end of a gene

D. A missense mutation that converts a non-polar amino acid into another

E. A missense mutation that converts a non-polar amino acid into a hydrophobic one

B. Nucleotide insertion at the 5' end of the gene

If a promoter was mutated to be closer to the constitutively active promoter sequence, what would be the affect on gene expression from this promoter?

A. Increase in gene expression regardless of activator presence

B. Increase in gene expression only in the presence of an activator

C. Decrease in gene expression regardless of activator presence

D. Increase in gene expression only in the presence of an activator

E. No change in gene expression

A. Increase in gene expression regardless of activator presence

The growth hormone receptor (GHR) is important in growth and development in humans. It responds to the presence of human growth hormone and positively regulates the expression of genes related to growth and cell division by activating a series of downstream target genes that interact with DNA and directly stimulate gene transcription. While human growth hormone is present in adults it is present at much higher levels in growing children. What would be the result on growth related genes if an adult took supplemental human growth hormone?

A. Expression of growth genes would increase in the presence of GHR

B. Expression of growth genes would increase in the absence of GHR

C. Expression of growth genes would decrease in the presence of GHR

D. Expression of growth genes would decrease regardless of GHR presence or absence

E. Expression of growth genes would increase regardless of GHR presence of absence

A. Expression of growth genes would increase in the presence of GHR

The presence of chromatin can negatively regulate gene expression because DNA is inaccessible wrapped around histones. Which of the following proteins loosens the interaction between histones and DNA?

A. Histone deacetylase

B. Tyrosine kinase

C. RNA polymerase

D. Histone acetyltransferace

E. Primase

D. Histone acetyltransferace

Which process is unique to prokaryotic gene regulation when compared to eukaryotic gene regulation?

A. Alternative splicing

B. Chromatin compaction

C. Poly-A tail length

D. Operons as a mechanism of co-regulation

E. Positive and negative regulation for the same gene using regulatory sequences

D. Operons as a mechanism of co-regulation

The growth hormone receptor (GHR) is important in growth and development in humans. It responds to the presence of human growth hormone and positively regulates the expression of genes related to growth and cell division by activating a series of downstream target genes that interact with DNA and directly stimulate gene transcription. BCL6 is a repressor of the target genes of GHR. While human growth hormone is present in adults it is present at much higher levels in growing children. What would be the result on growth related genes if a child was exposed to a substance that activated BCL6?

A. Expression of growth genes would increase in the presence of BCL6

B. Expression of growth genes would decrease in the presence of BCL6

C. There would be no change in the expression of growth genes in the presence of BCL6

D. The presence of growth genes would decrease regardless of the presence or absence of BCL6

E. The presence of growth genes would increase regardless of the presence or absence of BCL6

B. Expression of growth genes would decrease in the presence of BCL6

The largest component of the human genome is made up of what elements?

A. Introns

B. Simple sequence repeats

C. Retrotransposons

D. Protein coding sequence

E. Segmental duplications

C. Retrotransposons

Which of these factors positively correlates with genome size in prokaryotes?

A. Decreased metabolic complexity

B. Increased metabolic complexity

C. Larger organism size

D. Smaller organism size

E. Organism internal temperature

B. Increased metabolic complexity

Which type of mutation would be missed in exome sequencing?

A. A silent mutation in an exon

B. A frameshift mutation in an exon

C. A mutation in the 5' untranslated region of the mRNA

D. A mutation in a non-splicing area of an intron

E. A nonsense mutation in an exon

D. A mutation in a non-splicing area of an intron

Which of these statements is true about eukaryotic genomes?

A. DNA is "naked"

B. Chromosomes are circular

C. Larger organisms have bigger genomes than smaller organisms

D. Co-regulated genes are organized into operons

E. Chromosomes are linear

E. Chromosomes are linear

Which of these scenarios is NOT an example of biological evolution?

A. Random mutations in a population of bacteria lead to a more antibiotic resistant population in the presence of antibiotics

B. A chimpanzee learns how to open a coconut with a rock

C. A mutation in a mouse population leads to lighter coat colors in its offspring

D. Birds in a population with a louder call have more offspring than quieter birds

E. All of these are examples of evolution

B. A chimpanzee learns how to open a coconut with a rock

Based on our in-class definition of life, which of the following is considered alive?

A. Chopped and dried firewood

B. Slime proteins excreted by bacterial cells

C. A kidney stone

D. A leaf cell attached to a photosynthesizing oak tree

E. An artificially intelligent robot

D. A leaf cell attached to a photosynthesizing oak tree

Ocean mammals, such as whales and dolphins, have fins for stability during swimming just like fish. The fins of fish versus dolphins/whales develop from different embryonic tissue coded for by different genes. Given this evidence, what should scientists conclude about similarity in these traits?

A. The fins are homologous

B. The fins are analogous

C. The fins arose before the common ancestor

D. The fins have the same genetic sequence

E. None of the above

B. The fins are analogous

Which of the following is NOT required for evolution?

A. A selective pressure

B. Heritable traits

C. At least two generations

D. Variation of traits in a population

E. All of the above are required for evolution

A. A selective pressure

Which of the following statements are true about populations under natural selection?

A. Organisms become better adapted to their environment AND more diverse

B. Organisms become less adapted to their environment AND more diverse

C. Organisms become better adapted to their environment AND less diverse

D. Organisms become less adapted to their environment AND less diverse

E. Organisms become more adapted to their environment AND their diversity stays the same

C. Organisms become better adapted to their environment AND less diverse

Completely red fur color in squirrel monkeys is rare. Within a population you are observing the initial presence of all red coloring is 5%. The next generation you observe, the frequency of all red coloring is 20%, an increase on your initially observed frequency. Is this an example of natural selection?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Maybe - need more information

C. Maybe - need more information

You are observing a population of red tailed hawks in the environment over a period of generations. Given the information below about various individuals in the population, which individual has higher fitness?

A. A hawk has 3 offspring, all of which survive to reproduce

B. A hawk has 9 offspring, 3 of which survive to reproduce

C. A hawk has 10 offspring, none of which survive to reproduce

D. A hawk has 6 offspring, 5 of which survive to reproduce

E. A hawk has 2 offspring, 1 of which survives to reproduce

D. A hawk has 6 offspring, 5 of which survive to reproduce

Human head size at birth is under selection. Larger head size means a better developed baby with a better chance for survival, but too big of a head size doesn't allow for the baby to fit through the vagina. What type of selection is working on human head size at birth?

A. Balancing selection

B. Diversifying selection

C. Stabilizing selection

D. Directional selection

E. Uneven selection

C. Stabilizing selection

Sexual selection in peacocks means females select males with more showy tales for mating. These showy tales make it harder for these males to escape predators but increase their ability to mate successfully. Due to sexual selection males with showy tales have _________ fitness and ________ adaptability to their environment.

A. Increased, increased

B. Increased, decreased

C. Decreased, decreased

D. Decreased, increased

E. None of the above

B. Increased, decreased

Two populations of llamas are separated by a mountain range. In one of the populations most of the organisms have white coat color, in the other population most organisms have black coat color. If a rock slide opens up a new path for migration between the two populations, what type of evolutionary force is now acting on these populations and what is the effect on genetic diversity?

A. Gene flow, increased diversity

B. Sexual selection, decreased genetic diveristy

C. Genetic drift, increased diversity

D. Genetic drift, decreased diversity

E. Gene flow, decreased diversity

A. Gene flow, increased diversity

On an island in the pacific ocean there lives a small population of deer (~50 deer) and a larger population of mice (~1000 mice). After and earthquake a part of the island breaks away and isolates some of the deer and mice on it. This population undergoes evolution through a few generations as the allele frequency changes due to this event. What type of evolution is occurring and which population is more affected?

A. Gene flow, deer

B. Gene flow, mice

C. Genetic drift, deer

D. Genetic drift, mice

E. Sexual selection, deer

C. Genetic drift, deer

Acting alone, which mechanism of evolution ahs the smallest impact on allele frequency?

A. Genetic drift

B. Gene flow

C. Non-random mating

D. Natural selection

E. Mutation

E. Mutation

George P. Burdell's diary records a census of the squirrel population in the year 1930. He counted 200 squirrels:

120 gray, 60 brown-black and 20 black.

Gray squirrels are homozygous for the gray allele G.

Black squirrels are homozygous for the black allele B.

Brown squirrels are heterozygous BG

What is the frequency of the black B allele in this population at this time?

0.25

0.2

0.5

0.1

0.4

0.25

George P. Burdell also studied the squirrel population in Piedmont Park. This large squirrel population is isolated from neighboring squirrel populations because of the busy roads that encircle the park on all sides. George P. Burdell determined that the frequency of the B allele was 0.2. What would be the frequency of the brown squirrels (recall brown squirrels are heterozygous), if the Piedmont Park squirrel population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

0.32

0.2

0.4

0.16

the answer cannot be determined from the information given

0.32

Which of these would help the Piedmont Park squirrel population to remain in H-W equilibrium with respect to the coat color gene?

lack of gene flow (no immigration or emigration)

small population size

assortative mating

mutations affecting coat color

brown (heterozygous) squirrels having a fitness advantage

lack of gene flow (no immigration or emigration)

How would you determine if this squirrel population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

If the genotype frequencies of GG, GB and BB are equal to the allele frequencies p^2, 2pq and q^2, respectively

If p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

If the allele frequencies of G and G add up to 1: p + q = 1, where p = frequency of the G allele

If the genotype frequencies of GG, GB and BB add up to 1: f(GG) + f(GB) + f(BB) = 1

If any single one of these conditions are met

If the genotype frequencies of GG, GB and BB are equal to the allele frequencies p^2, 2pq and q^2, respectively

The squirrels on the Georgia Tech campus are eastern gray squirrels. Some have a brown-black coat color, and a few have a black coat color, distinct from the most common gray coat color. Coat color is a genetic trait. Studies indicate that black squirrels tolerate below-freezing temperatures better than gray squirrels. Black squirrels have less heat loss and a higher capacity for generating body heat than either gray squirrels or brown-black squirrels. Suppose that Atlanta experiences several years of abnormally cold winters with many days of below-freezing temperature each winter. What would evolutionary theory predict for the effect of such winters on the Georgia Tech squirrel population, if black coat color confers a survival advantage?

The frequency of black coat color will increase because they have a fitness advantage in cold winters

Random mating will ensure that allele frequencies will stay constant

All of the squirrels will change their coat colors from gray in the summer to black in the winter

Female squirrels will prefer to mate with black squirrels to pass on the black allele to their progeny and increase their fitness

The frequency of black coat color will increase because they have a fitness advantage in cold winters

Which species concept CANNOT be applied to bacteria?

Biological species concept

Morphological species concept

Ecological species concept

Phylogenetic species concept

Biological species concept

What may cause sympatric speciation of squirrels in Piedmont Park?

Assortative mating: squirrels mate only with squirrels of the same coat color

Owls preying on black squirrels and hawks preying on gray squirrels

Piedmont Park being split in half by a squirrel-proof fence

George P Burdell transferring squirrels from Georgia Tech into Piedmont Park

Assortative mating: squirrels mate only with squirrels of the same coat color

Based on the DNA sequence similarities, the closest living relatives of humans are chimpanzees and bonobos. DNA sequence analysis suggests that the human lineage diverged from the chimpanzee/bonobo lineage about 6 million years ago, and chimpanzees and bonobo lineages diverged from each other about 2 million years ago. Bonobos are found only in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), south of the Congo River. Chimpanzees also live in the DRC, but they live north of the Congo river. Bonobos have significant differences in morphology, social structure and mating behavior from chimpanzees. No hybrids have been observed in the wild, but individual chimpanzees and bonobos brought together in captivity can mate and produce fertile hybrid offspring.

Based on just this information what species concepts would separate chimpanzees and bonobos as different species? Choose all correct answers

Phylogenetic species concept

Biological species concept

Morphological species concept

Phylogenetic species concept

Biological species concept

Morphological species concept

Differences in mating behavior would lead to what type of reproductive isolation?

pre-zygotic isolation

post-zygotic isolation

pre-zygotic isolation

Which of the organisms in this tree is the most modern?

All the organisms at the tips are equally modern

Primates, rodents and rabbits

birds and dinosaurs

sharks

primates

All the organisms at the tips are equally modern

Which of these are fundamental stratigraphic principles?

New rock layers are formed above older layers

Rock layers are always horizontal

Rock formations always show a continuous series of layers with no gaps

Plate techtonics has changed the way that rock layers form today, from the way they were formed before crustal plates began moving

A structure that is included in another is younger than the including structure

New rock layers are formed above older layers

Which mass extinction event is associated with an asteroid impact and the extinction of dinosaurs?

End of the Cretacious

End of the Permian

End of the Ordovician

End of the Jurassic

End of the Cretacious

Within igneous (volcanic) rock, Potassium 40 decays to Argon 40 with a half-life of 1.25 billion years. There is no Argon 40 initially present in igneous rock when it first solidifies. If another radiometric dating method estimated an igneous rock layer to be ~2.5 billion years old, what proportion of Potassium 40 to total isotope (Potassium 40 + Argon 40) should you find in this rock layer?

1/4

1/2

1/8

1/16

3/4

1/4

Evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis and accumulation of atmospheric oxygen gas caused or enabled which of these changes listed below?

Evolution of eukaryotes

Colonization of land surfaces by plants and animals

larger organismal body size

All of these

All of these

Which of the events listed below can cause adaptive radiations? Choose all correct answers.

Mass extinctions that open previously occupied ecological niches

Evolutionary innovations such as jaws and teeth

Colonization of new habitats

Creation of new habitats by changes in sea level and climate

Mass extinctions that open previously occupied ecological niches

Evolutionary innovations such as jaws and teeth

Colonization of new habitats

Creation of new habitats by changes in sea level and climate

Why is RNA an attractive candidate as the original genetic material, instead of DNA?

RNA can have catalytic activity, including the possibility of replicating RNA molecules in the absence of protein

RNA is more chemically stable than DNA

RNA has more information carrying capacity than DNA

The oldest microfossils have RNA genomes

RNA can have catalytic activity, including the possibility of replicating RNA molecules in the absence of protein

Suppose an RNA molecule forms that is able to read a template RNA molecule and make a complementary RNA strand. This molecule enclosed inside a proto-cell is now _____

capable of undergoing chemical or molecular evolution

capable of undergoing biological evolution

a complete genetic system that will replicate the protocell

going to evolve into a DNA molecule

capable of undergoing chemical or molecular evolution

How might organic molecules have formed or accumulated in a pre-biotic Earth?

Reactions triggered by lightning discharges, such as the ones Miller and Urey demonstrated

Reactions around ocean hydrothermal vents

Extraterrestrial organic carbon molecules landing on Earth via meteorites and cosmic dust

All of these

All of these

proto-cells may have used what kind of energy?

proton gradients across the proto-cell lipid bilayer membrane

light energy (photosynthesis)

glycolysis

aerobic respiration

proton gradients across the proto-cell lipid bilayer membrane

What drives slow, deep ocean thermohaline currents?

plate tectonic movements

Cold, salty water sinking in the northern Atlantic and Pacific oceans

Surface wind patterns

upwelling at coastal areas

Cold, salty water sinking in the northern Atlantic and Pacific oceans

Which of the following statements about the Hadley Cell shown above is correct?

Air that has traveled in the upper atmosphere from the equator to 30 degrees North or South has the greatest water content

Downward movement of air at 30 degrees North or South leads to heavy rainfall

Air cools as it rises at the equator

Air gets warmer as it travels in the upper atmosphere from the equator to 30 degrees

Air cools as it moves downward at 30 degrees North and South

Air cools as it rises at the equator

Hadley cells explain what observations about the global biosphere?

Why water circles drains clockwise in the northern hemisphere but counterclockwise in the southern hemisphere

Why the polar regions are dry.

Why the world's great deserts are generally found at 30 degrees north and south of the equator

Why temperature varies seasonally further away from the equator.

Why the world's great deserts are generally found at 30 degrees north and south of the equator

Which of these is NOT an example of an organismal behavior?

A yellowjacket stings a bulldog that disturbs its nest

Bacteria migrate towards a food source

The only example of behavior is the yellowjacket that stings - all the others are not examples of behavior

Trees grow shorter and stouter branches in response to continual strong winds

Mosquito larvae are transported to a new location in a bucket of water on board a freighter

Mosquito larvae are transported to a new location in a bucket of water on board a freighter

European blackcaps, shown here, exhibit high variation in migration patterns. Some migrate long distances, others migrate short distances, and still others don't migrate at all. Which of the following supports the hypothesis that genes influence migratory behavior?

experiment a) newborn birds reared in isolation exhibit the same migratory behavior as their parents

experiment b) hybrids between parents with different migration patterns exhibit intermediate migration behavior

both experiments a) and b)

neither experiment a) nor b)

both experiments a) and b)

Which of these describe an ultimate driver of migratory behavior?

Migratory birds have slightly larger wings and lower body weight than non-migratory birds

Migratory birds produce more of a neuropeptide that increases appetite and increases fat reserves needed for energy during migration

Migratory birds have changes in genes that sense day length and circadian (daily) rhythms

Migratory birds are able to find better food and produce more progeny than resident birds

All of these are ultimate drivers of migratory behavior

Migratory birds are able to find better food and produce more progeny than resident birds