MPA 531 Patient History and Physical Diagnosis - Nervous System

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95 Terms

1
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How do you assess for CN I?

- Olfactory Nerve

- Check for nasel patency

- Present patient with familiar odors while eyes are closed

2
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What are normal vs. abnormal CN I responses?

Normal - Perceives odor on each side and identifies smell

Abnormal - Inability to perceive odor/identify smell which can occur in sinus conditions, head trauma, smoking, etc.

3
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How do you assess for CN II?

- Optic Nerve

1) Test Visual Acuity

2) Ealuate Optic Fundi with ophthaloscope

3) Assess visual field by confrontation

4) Inspect size, shape and symmetry of pupils

5) Assess pupillary response

4
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How to assess for CN III?

- Oculomotor Nerve

1) Pupillary responses (direct and consensual)

2) Near Response/Reflex

5
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How to assess for CN III, IV and VI?

Oculomotor, Trocheal and Abducens Nerve

- Test by doing H pattern test to check extra ocular movements

6
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How to assess for CN V?

Trigeminal Nerve

- Motor: Have pt clench teeth while palpating masseter and temporal muscles

- Sensory: Touch forehead, cheek and jaw for pain sensation and light touch

- Corneal Reflex - Have patient look up and away and lightly touch cornea with cotton wisp

7
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What is a normal vs abnormal corneal reflex response?

Normal - Blinking

Abnormal - No blinking (seen in use of contacts and acoustic neuromas)

8
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How to assess for CN VII?

Facial

Ask patient to raise eyebrows, frown, puff cheeks, smile, show teeth, close both eyes while trying to pen them

9
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How to assess for CN VIII?

Use whispered voice or finger rub test

10
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How to assess for CN IX and V?

- Assess for dysphagia

- Have pt say "ah" to see soft palate and pharynx

- Assess for gag reflex

11
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How to assess for CN XI?

- Have patient shoulder shrug against resistance

- Have patient move face agains't your resistance

12
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How to assess for CN XII?

Assess for articulation of patient's word and monitor tongue deviation

13
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What is dysdiadochokinesia?

inability to perform rapid alternating movements

14
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What techniques are used to properly assess coordination?

- Rapid Alternating Movements

- Point to Point Movements (finger-to-nose for UE and heel-to-shit for LE)

- Gait

- Posture while standing

15
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What is the Romberg test?

Assesses patient's stance

- Pt should stand with their feet together, then close their eyes for 30-60 seconds to assess for any swaying or movement

16
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What is the pronator drift?

Patient should stand for 20-30 seconds with both arms straight forward and palms up with eyes closed, and instruct patient to keep arms up and eyes shut as you tap arms briskly downward

17
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What is dysmetria?

inability to control the distance, power, and speed of a muscular action

18
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What is dysarthria?

Slurred speech due to muscle weakness

19
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What is ataxia?

the loss of full control of bodily movements

20
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What is the differences between upper motor neuron lesions and lower motor neuron lesions?

UMN Lesions - results in increased muscle tone, spasticity, paralysis/muscle weakness and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes

LMN Lesions - results in ipsilateral weakness, decreased muscles tone, muscle fasciculations, paralysis and decreased/absent reflexes

21
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What types of symptoms are present in an upper motor neuron lesion that occurs in the spine?

Ipsilateral symptoms (SAME side as the injury)

22
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What types of symptoms are present in an upper motor neuron lesion that occurs in the brainstem?

Contralateral symptoms (OPPOSITE side of the injury)

23
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What is Parkinson's disease?

A disorder of the central nervous system that affects movement, often including tremors.

24
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What is a 0 grade muscle strength?

No muscular contraction detected

25
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What is grade 1 muscle strength?

a barely detectable flicker or trace of contraction

26
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What is grade 2 muscle strength?

active movement with gravity eliminated

27
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What is grade 3 muscle strength?

active movement against gravity

28
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What is grade 4 muscle strength?

active movement against gravity and some resistance

29
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What is grade 5 muscle strength?

Full range of movement against gravity & full resistance (normal muscle strength)

30
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What is 4+ grade reflex?

Very brisk, hyperactive with clonus

31
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What is a 3+ grade reflex?

Brisker than average but may not be indicative of a disease

32
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What is a 2+ grade reflex?

average, normal

33
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What is a 1+ grade reflex?

Somewhat diminished, low normal

34
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What is a 0 grade reflex?

no response

35
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What nerves are associated with the bicep reflex?

C5 & C6

36
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What nerves are associated with the triceps reflex?

C6 & C7

37
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What nerves are associated with the bracioradialis reflex?

C5 & C6

38
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What nerves are associated with the patella reflex?

L2, L3, L4

39
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What nerves are associated with the ankle reflex?

S1-2

40
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What is a stroke?

Damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply.

41
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What is the leading risk factor for strokes?

Hypertension

42
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What is Metabolic encephalopathy?

Metabolic encephalopathy refers to a spectrum of brain disorders caused by systemic metabolic disturbances.

(Organ failure, electrolyte imbalances, toxins, infections, or nutritional deficiencies.)

43
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What is hepatic encephalopathy?

The loss of brain function when a damaged liver doesn't remove toxins from the blood.

44
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Where should UE strength be assessed?

- Flexion (Biceps - C5 and C6)

- Extension (Triceps - C6-C8)

- Extension of wrist (C6-C8 and radial nerve)

- Grip Strength (C7, C8, T1)

- Finger abduction (C8, T1, ulnar nerve)

- Thumb Opposition (C8, T1, median nerve)

45
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Where should LE strength be assessed?

Hips

Knees

Legs

Feet

46
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with flexion of the hip?

L2, L3, L4 - iliopsoas

47
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with adduction of the hip?

L2, L3, L4 - hip adductors

48
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with abduction of the hip?

L4, L5, S1 - gluteus medius and minimus

49
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with extension of the hip?

S1 - gluteus Maximus

50
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with knee extension?

L2, L3, L4 - quads

51
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with knee flexion?

L4, L5, S1, S2 - hamstrings

52
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with dorsiflexion?

L4, L5 - tibilalis anterior

53
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What nerve(s) and muscle(s) are associated with plantar flexion?

S1 - gastrocnemius and soleus

54
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What are the 4 discriminative tests used during a neuro exam?

1) Graphesthesia - Draw a number in pt's hand

2) Two-point discrimination - use paper clip to assess when pt feels two points vs one point

3) Point Localization - Touch a point on patient's skin and have pt identify where you touched

4) Extinction - Touch two areas on pt's body at the same time and ask pt where they feel the touch

55
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What are the special tests that can indicate meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage?

- Nuchal rigidity

- Brudzinki's sign

- Kernig's Sign

56
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How do you test for nuchal rigidity?

- Place pt supine

- Have pt bend neck forward to assess for pain

57
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How do you perform Brudzinski's sign?

While flexing the pt's neck, observe hips and knees; hip and knee flexion observed in these pts is a positive test

58
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What special tests can help us identify metabolic/hepatic encephalopathy?

Asterixis

59
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How is the majority of strokes caused?

Ischemia

60
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The most common cause of brain ischemia is the occlusion of the ________________________?

Middle Cerebral Artery

61
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Clinical presentation in left sided stroke?

Aphasia

62
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Clinical presentation in right sided stroke?

Hemineglect

63
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Low frequency unilateral resting tremor is typical of _______________

Parkinson's

64
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What is ABCD2 scoring system?

Helps us predict the likelihood of a stroke occurring after a TIA

65
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TIAs are a major risk factor for ___________________?

Subsequent stroke

66
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What are the three D's?

Delirum

Dementia

Depression

67
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What is the screening performed for Delirum?

Confusional Assessment Method (CAM)

68
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What is the screening performed for Dementia?

Mini-Mental Status Exam (MOCA)

69
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What is the screening performed for Depression?

PHQ-2 followed by PHQ-9

70
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What causes a stocking glove pattern of sensory loss?

Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy

71
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How is Kernig's sign performed?

Flex the patient's leg at the hip and knee, then straighten the knee.

Positive test is pain and increased resistance to extending the knee

72
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What is past pointing?

If finger has repetitive and constant deviation to one side

73
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What is dysmetria?

If the finger overshoots its mark but eventually reaching target during point-to-point movement

74
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What is dsydiadochokinesia?

Slow, irregular, clumsy arm movements during rapid alternating movements

75
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What are red flag symptoms of headache?

- Pt states "worst headache of my life" or "thunderclap headache"

- Sudden onset

- Onset after age 50

- Presence of fever or stiff neck

- AMS, seizures, papilledema or focal neurological findings

76
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What are dermatomes?

Specific areas of the skin that receive sensory input from a single nerve root

77
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What is the spinothalamic tract responsible for?

pain, temperature, crude touch

78
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What is the posterior columnn responsible for?

vibration, proprioception, kinesthesia, pressure, fine touch

79
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Lesions above decussation affect which side of the body?

The contralateral side

80
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Lesions below decussation affect which side of the body?

The ipsilateral side

81
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What is the corticospinal tract?

A descending somatic motor tract that is responsible for voluntary skeletal movement and cross the other side of the body

82
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Are UMN's part of the CNS or PNS?

CNS

83
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Are LMN's part of the CNS or PNS?

PNS

84
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What is the extrapyamidal system?

A motor pathway that modulates automatic and involunatry movements

85
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What is decussation?

crossing over

86
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What CN's also carry parasympathetic innervation?

- Oculomotor

- Facial

- Glossopharygeal

- Vagus

87
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Where does the spinal cord end?

L1-L2

88
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What are the 3 parts of the brainstem?

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

89
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What is the function of the cerebellum?

Balance and coordination

90
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What are the four major regions of the brain?

cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum

91
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Brain tissue is composed of ________ & _________?

Gray Matter and White Matter

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What does gray matter contain?

Neurons

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What does what matter contain?

Myelinated (high fat content) axons

94
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What are oligodendrocytes?

A type of glial cell responsible for myelination in the CNS

95
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What are Schwann Cells?

A type of glial cell responsible for myelination in the PNS