CSCS Practical Applied

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Last updated 1:19 PM on 7/2/26
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424 Terms

1
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a procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor

test

2
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A test used to assess ability that is performed away from the lab and doesn't require extensive training or expensive equipment:

field test

3
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process of collecting data:

measurement

4
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process of analyzing test results for the purpose of decision making:

 evaluation

5
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a test administered before the beginning of training to determine the athlete's initial basic ability levels:

pretest

6
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a test administered one or more times during training period to assess program and modify the program as needed:

 midtest

7
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periodic reevaluation based on midtests administered during the training, usually at regular intervals

formative evaluation

8
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test administered after a training period to determine the success of the training program in achieving training objectives:

post test

9
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the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure

validity

10
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the ability of a test to represent the underlying construct (measures what it is designed to measure)

Construct validity

11
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appearance to the athlete and other casual observers that a test measures what it is purported to measure

face validity

12
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assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities in appropriate proportions

 content validity

13
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the extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability

criterion-referenced validity

14
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the extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted tests that measure the same ability

concurrent validity

15
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evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and of those of the recognized measure of the construct

convergent validity

16
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the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance

predictive validity

17
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the ability of a test to distinguish between 2 different constructs and is evidence based by a low correlation between the results of the test and those of tests of a different construct

discriminant validity

18
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measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test

reliability

19
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statistical correlation of the scores from the 2 administrations

test-retest reliability

20
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equipment error and biological variations of the athletes

 typical error of measurement (TE)

21
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lack of consistent performance by the person being tested

 intrasubject variability

22
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the degree to which different raters agree in their test results over time or on repeated occasions

interrater reliability

23
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lack of consistent scores by a given tester

intrarater variability

24
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In order for a test to be valid it must take this into consideration?

Sport specificity

25
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a grouping of tests

 test battery

26
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What is the proper order of testing?:

1. Nonfatiguing tests (e.g. height, weight, skinfolds)

2. Agility (e.g. t-test,

pro-agility)

3. Max Power/Strength (e.g.1RM)

4. Speed (e.g. 40m sprint)

5. Local Muscular Endurance (e.g.

push-up or sit-up test)

6. Fatiguing Anaerobic Capacity (e.g. 300-yard shuttle)

7. Aerobic Capacity (e.g. 1.5 mile

run)

27
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What are the 2 tests that are recommended to be done on different days or after prolonged rest?

fatiguing anaerobic capacity and aerobic capacity

28
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ability to respond effectively to various physical demands of specific sport or event

athletic performance

29
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the maximal rate of energy produced by the combined phosphagen and anaerobic glycolytic systems for the moderate-duration activities (30-90s)

anaerobic capacity

30
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the ability for certain muscles or muscle groups to perform repeated contractions against a submaximal resistance:

local muscular endurance

31
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maximum rate at which an athlete can produce energy through oxidation of energy sources

aerobic capacity (power)

32
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speed and change of direction due to a stimulus

agility

33
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movement distance per unit time quantified as time taken over a distance

 speed

34
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What is the max distance you can utilize for testing speed?

100m

35
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range of motion about a body joint

flexibility

36
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What should not be done before a static stretching/flexibility test?

ballistic stretching

37
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ability to maintain static and dynamic equilibrium or ability to maintain body's center of gravity over base of support:

balance

38
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a measure of the ability to return to a desired position following a disturbance in the system

stability

39
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These 2 balance test have good reliability

Balance error scoring system (BESS) and Star Excursion Balance Test (SEBT)

40
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relative proportions by weight of fat and lean tissue

body composition

41
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What is the most valid and reliable test for body composition?

skinfolds

42
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the science of measurement applied to the human body, generally includes height, weight, and selected body girths

anthropometry

43
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When measuring an athlete's height you measure to the nearest what?

1/4 inch

44
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How many spotters and recorders are required for a 1RM bench press test?

1 spotter and 1 recorder

45
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How many warm-up sets at heavier weight should be performed before first 1RM attempt on bench press?:

2

46
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How many spotters and recorders are needed for a 1RM bench pull?

1 spotter and 1 recorder

47
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In order for a rep to be valid on a 1RM bench pull what needs to occur?

touch the underside of the bench and controlled down

48
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How many spotters and recorders are needed during the 1RM back squat?

2 spotters and 1 recorder

49
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How much space is required to perform the standing long jump test?:

20ft (6m)

50
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How many people are required for the standing long jump test?

 2 (1 distance scorer and 1 recorder)

51
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In order for a jump to be scored on the standing long jump the athlete must?

land of their feet

52
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The best score of 3 trials of the standing long jump is rounded to the nearest?

0.5in or 1cm

53
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For the vertical jump test the best of 3 trials is rounded to the nearest?

 0.5in or 1cm

54
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When recording a long jump trial where do you take the measurement?

the heels of the athlete

55
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How long does the athlete hold the bottom position in static jump test before jumping?

 2-3s

56
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How long is the athlete required to rest between trials of a 300-yard shuttle?

5 minutes

57
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How many trials should be done of a 300 yard shuttle?

2

58
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The average of the trials of the 300 yard shuttle is rounded to the nearest?

 0.1s

59
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For the partial curl-up test the metronome should be set to what?

40bpm

60
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In the partial curl-up test how far away should the tape be from the middle finger of a younger athlete?

4.7in

61
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In the partial curl-up test how far away should the tape be from the middle finger of an older athlete?:

3.1in

62
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During the push-up test for women, what is the size of the foam roller that bring their chest too?

4 inches in diameter

63
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For the YMCA bench press test, what is the weight for males?

80lbs

64
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For the YMCA Bench Press test, what is the weight for women?

35lbs

65
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What is the metronome set at for the YMCA Bench Press Test?

60bpm

66
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How many cones are required for the T-test?:

4

67
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What would cause an invalid T-test?:

crossing the feet, failure to touch cones, going to the right instead of left to start

68
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The best of the T-test trials is taken to the nearest?

 0.1s

69
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For the pro agility test the athlete starts in what stance?

 3 point stance

70
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The best of the 2 trials for the pro agility test is taken to the nearest?

 0.1s

71
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How many cones are required for the 505 agility test?:

 7

72
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The best of the trials of the 505 agility test is taken to the nearest?

0.1s

73
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During straight line sprint tests, the athlete is allowed how many practice runs at submax speed?:

2

74
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During straight line sprint tests the athlete assumes what stance at the starting position?

3 or 4 point stance

75
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How much time of rest is required between trials of a sprint test?:

2 minutes

76
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For the sit and reach test, the best of 3 trials is taken to the nearest?

0.25in or 1cm

77
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During the overhead squat test the athlete must squat to what depth?

hip crease below knees

78
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What is the minimum amount of reps needed to be performed during the overhead squat assessment?

5

79
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For the skinfold assessment, what do the measurements of each site need to be within?

2mm

80
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What are the eight sites for the skinfold assessment?

 1. Triceps

2. Subscapula

3. Chest

4. Midaxillary

  1. Suprailiac

  2. Abdomen

  3. Thigh

  4. Calf

81
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difference between an athlete's score at the beginning and end of training

difference score

82
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the average of the scores (most commonly used measure of central tendency)

mean

83
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middlemost score when a set of scores is arranged in order (use when it best represents group scores)

median

84
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the score that occurs with greatest frequency

mode

85
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interval from the lowest to highest score:

range

86
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percent of test takers below that individual

percentile rank

87
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Increased muscle temperature, increased core temperature, enhanced neural function, and disruption of transient connective tissue bonds are examples of?

temperature-related effects

88
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Increased blood flow, elevation of baseline oxygen consumption, and postactivation potentiation are examples of?

Non-temperature related effects

89
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5 minutes of slow aerobic activity is considered what?

General warm-up

90
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Follows general warm up and should incorporate movements similar to that of the athlete's sport. Typically 10-20 minutes.:

 Specific Warm-Up

91
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What are the 4 components of the RAMP protocol?:

 1. Raise 2. Activate 3. Mobilize 4. Potentiate

92
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the degree of motion that occurs at a joint

range of motion

93
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range of possible movement about a joint and its surrounding muscles during a passive movement:

static flexibility

94
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the available ROM during active movements and therefore requires voluntary muscle action

 dynamic flexibility

95
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What range of motion is greater dynamic or static?

dynamic

96
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What joint structure allows for the greatest range of motion?:

ball-and-socket

97
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How many planes of motion can an ellipsoidal joint function in?:

2

98
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A hinge joint operates in how many planes of motion?

1

99
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Fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers

 fibrosis

100
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Who are more flexible men or women?:

women