slp5003 final exam

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155 Terms

1
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The preferred term for a person presenting with hearing loss who can derive benefit from hearing aids and uses oral communication is:

hard of hearing

2
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What are recommendations developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to control the spread of infectious diseases?

universal precautions

3
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The conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of an individual patient is defined as:

evidence-based practice

4
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Equipment calibration should occur formally every:

year

5
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The systematic methodology of providing assistance to children who are experiencing educational difficulty to prevent academic failure is:

response to intervention

6
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The development of a standard of practice and process that can be used as a benchmark across a profession is called:

best practice

7
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T/F: Hearing screenings are within the scope of practice of both SLPs and AUDs.

true

8
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The delivery of services to newborns, infants, and children born with hearing loss is:

habilitation

9
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Manual communication and speechreading are the primary means of communication for which individuals?

Deaf with a capital D

10
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The measurement of how far a sound has travelled in one cycle is what?

wavelength

11
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What is the unit of measurement for frequency?

Hertz

12
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The amount of time it takes to complete 1 cycle of vibration is a:

period

13
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What describes both the magnitude and direction of wave displacement from rest?

amplitude

14
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T/F: Pitch and frequency are synonymous.

false

15
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Prerequisites for sound include a source of energy (force), a vibrating object, and a what?

medium of transmission

16
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What medium do humans produce sound?

air

17
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The portion of a cycle that has elapsed at any instant in time relative to some arbitrary starting point is the:

phase

18
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Why is the decibel used as a unit of measure in audiometric testing?

prevents the use of fractions and decimals

19
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The end organ of hearing is known as the:

cochlea

20
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When auditory nerve fibers are arranged in order of frequency from high (basal end to low apical end) it refers to:

tonotopicity

21
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The middle ear has what type of energy transduction?

mechanical

22
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Where is perilymph found?

scala vestibuli and scala tympani

23
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The purpose of the external auditory canal is to protect the inner parts of the ear from debris and to:

increase the amplitude of high-frequency sounds

24
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What are the 2 middle ear muscles?

tensor tympani and stapedius

25
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T/F: Outer hair cells are fewer and make direct contact with the tectorial membrane.

false

26
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What is the primary function of the Eustachian tube?

equalize pressure in the middle ear space

27
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The primary purpose of the middle ear is to:

impedance match

28
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Air conduction testing tell us:

extent & configuration

29
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Bone conduction testing tells us:

type of hearing loss

30
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Why are sound rooms important in audiometric testing?

they help to reduce background noise

31
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T/F: All audiometers must have a frequency dial that allows the selection of each of the various frequencies used during the hearing test.

true

32
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Which of the following has shown to greater reduce the impact of unwanted ambient noise during audiometric testing: standard or insert earphones?

insert earphones

33
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Please define the lowest decibel level at which audiometric responses occur in at least half of a series of ascending trials.

auditory threshold

34
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For a standard audiometric test, diagnostic testing should begin at:

1000 Hz

35
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What is the difference, in decibels, between the intensity of sound that was presented to the poorer ear and the amount of sound that actually reached the good ear?

interaural attenuation

36
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The lowest interaural attenuation value for supra-aural earphones is:

40 dB

37
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The lowest interaural attenuation value for insert earphones is:

55 dB

38
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Eustachian tube dysfunction, otitis media, otosclerosis, and cholesteatomas are found in which portion of the ear?

middle ear

39
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Someone with age related permanent hearing loss coupled with a cerumen impaction would likely experience which type of hearing loss?

mixed

40
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Which of the following anatomical areas causes conductive hearing loss if it sustains damage:

outer ear

middle ear

pinna

concha?

all of the above

41
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T/F: Common characteristics of otitis media includes crying, sleeplessness, pain, aural fullness, irritability, pulling or tugging at the ears, drainage from the ears, headache neck pain, inconsistent response to sound and conductive hearing loss.

true

42
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T/F: Meningitis, mastoiditis, cholesteatomas are all potential medical consequences that can result from otitis media.

true

43
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T/F: The degree of hearing loss associated with otitis media may range from minimal to profound.

false

44
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What is a chronic and progressive inner ear condition that is characterized by buildup of endolymph in the labyrinth, causing auditory and vestibular disturbances?

Meniere's Disease

45
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T/F: SLP's should check for collapsing ear canals when using earphones during a hearing screening.

true

46
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Perforated tympanic membrane (eardrum) are due to either inflammation or:

trauma

47
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The best treatment for noise induced hearing loss is:

prevention

48
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T/F: Audiometrically, the type of hearing loss caused by noise exposure is sensorineural in nature.

true

49
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When certain drugs or substances damage the inner ear or organs of balance, what's the term?

ototoxicity

50
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Meniere's Disease is caused by too much buildup of:

endolymph

51
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Presbycusis is defined as hearing loss from:

age

52
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T/F: The cause of Autoimmune inner ear disease (AIED) is unknown.

true

53
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T/F: An Acoustic neuroma is a malignant tumor.

false, it's cancerous

54
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What is a condition in which test results include present otoacoustic emissions and an absent or grossly abnormal ABR.

ANSD

55
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When the mother has a recessive trait for hearing loss and passes it to her male offspring only, it is considered what type of genetic hearing loss?

x-linked

56
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T/F: Mumps, measles, rubella, and other viruses can cause permanent sensorineural hearing loss.

true

57
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Masking for speech should be applied when:

speech threshold for the test ear exceed the best bone conduction score of the nontest ear by 40dB

58
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A speech recognition threshold is established using what type of words?

spondee

59
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What is the softest level where someone can understand speech at least 50% of the time?

speech recognition threshold

60
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What is the softest level where someone can just detect speech at least 50% of the time?

speech awareness threshold

61
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Please define the mathematical difference between someone's thresholds to the point of their uncomfortable loudness level.

dynamic range

62
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T/F: The pure-tone average (PTA) and speech recognition threshold (SRT) should agree.

true

63
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Word recognition testing is for assessing:

clarity

64
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The point where a listener could no longer tolerate the sound for more than a few seconds is called:

loudness discomfort level

65
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T/F: Speech testing stimuli are more naturally occurring in the environment than tones used for pure-tone testing.

true

66
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Audiometric testing used when attempting to subjectively test a child with a developmental age of 6-7 months:

Behavioral Observation Audiometry (BOA)

67
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Audiometric testing frequently performed in the sound field using 2 audiologists, or with an available SLP:

Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VRA)

68
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What type of audiometric testing should be used when attempting to subjectively test a child with a developmental or chronological age of 2.5 to 5 years of age?

Conditioned Play Audiometry (CPA)

69
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A typically developing 4-year-old child is being seen in an audiology clinic. What testing technique will likely be used to obtain the most reliable test results?

Conditioned Play Audiometry (CPA)

70
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Instead of obtaining thresholds during pediatric testing, a _ _ _ is generally acceptable.

minimum response level

71
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Please define the type of audiometric testing used with food or a palpable reward.

Tangible Reinforcement Operant Conditional Audiometry (TROCA)

72
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Audiometric testing using an animated light-up toy as a reward:

Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VRA)

73
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What is the main goal of the EHDI program?

to promote early detection of hearing loss

74
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What does early detection of hearing loss promote?

linguistic and communicative competence

75
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What part of the auditory system do otoacoustic emissions assess?

cochlea

76
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Tests that require behavioral response include:

pure-tones

77
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2 types of otoacoustic emission testing include:

TEOAE and DPOAE

78
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Which of the following can help provide frequency specific info during physiologic testing:

-ABR (Auditory Brainstem Response)

-ASSR (Auditory Steady State Response)

-ENG (Electronystagmography)

-VNG (Videonystagmography)

ASSR

79
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T/F: OAE results can determine type and extent of a hearing loss.

false

80
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T/F: ABR is a direct measure of hearing sensitivity.

false

81
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T/F: Some individuals may need to be sedated for ABR testing.

true

82
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The ABR measures neurological response to auditory stimuli at the level of the:

brainstem

83
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T/F: About 50% of children with unilateral hearing loss will be retained in a grade or will require resource assistance in school.

true

84
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T/F: Children with unilateral hearing loss can localize sound.

false

85
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T/F: High-frequency sensorineural hearing loss in children generally has an insignificant impact on speech & language development and communication ability.

false

86
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T/F: A reverse curve hearing loss has a rising configuration.

true

87
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What is an auditory processing disorder?

the impaired ability to attend to, discriminate, remember, recognize, or comprehend information presented auditorily

88
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T/F: Rapid involuntary rhythmic eye movement is known as vertigo.

false

89
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T/F: VNGs and ENGs primarily monitor nystagmus.

true

90
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T/F: VNGs and ENGs can determine the exact cause of dizziness.

false

91
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T/F: Vestibular testing result interpretation is out of the scope of practice for SLPs.

true

92
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When the air conduction results are outside of the normal range (exceeding 15 dB HL), but the bone conduction thresholds are within normal limits, what type of hearing loss is there?

conductive hearing loss

93
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What type of procedure becomes valuable in identifying the etiology of an outer ear disoder?

otoscopy; visual inspection

94
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T/F: In the presence of microtia and atresia, treatment may include medical and/or surgical options.

true

95
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T/F: If impacted cerumen is suspected, it is strongly recommended that the patient consult his/her physician.

true

96
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What is the recommended treatment for otitis externa (swimmer's ear)?

varies depending on etiology; could include antibiotics recommended by physician, refraining from swimming/bathing, and potentially surgery

97
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T/F: Identification or suspicion of a ruptured eardrum requires immediate referral to a medical professional.

true

98
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T/F: Otitis media is a diagnosis that can be made by AUDs.

false, must be made by appropriately credentialed medical personnel (physicians, nurse practitioners, and the like)

99
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T/F: Routine medical/otologic & audiologic referrals, exams, and management are imperative when treating otitis media.

true

100
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What treatments are often successful for otitis media?

medications and/or surgeries such as myringotomy and pressure equalization (PE) tube insertion