Weekly Quiz study list

All weekly quizzes combined

What are possible results from the exposure to radiation?

1. Changes in the DNA molecule

2. Sterilization of the cell

3. Death of the cell

How can radiation damage to the DNA molecule of a genetic cell affect the future generations of an individual?

Mutations may occur

Whole body radiation, delivered in a period of seconds to minutes, produces a clinical pattern known as what?

Acute radiation syndrome

What does lethal dose 50/30 mean?

50% of the group dies within 30 days

What does genetically significant dose mean?

Estimated dose received by the population

Radiation damage depends on what?

1. Absorbed dose

2. Type of radiation

3. Size of the area exposed

What is the minimum level of radiation exposure below which no genetic or somatic damage occurs?

No minimum level is known

A fluoroscopic procedure performed on a pregnant female could result in what?

1. Stillbirth

2. Miscarriage

3. Congenital anomalies

Radiation is said to be carcinogenic. What does that mean?

A cancer producing substance

How can radiation induce cancer in a patient?

A mutation can increase cell growth

How much radiation exposure does it take to have a lethal dose where 50% of the humans would die within 60 days ?

1.03×10^-1 C/kg (400 to 500 R)

What can occur from a significant exposure to radiation?

1. Blood disorders

2. Malignant growths develop

3. Cataract formation

When radiation exposure causes hematopoietic death, what is the main reason why the person died?

Immune system is destroyed

The greatest radiation hazard to the fetus occurs during what time period?

First trimester

During a Radiographic examination, what would produce the greatest skin dose?

Short SID

A reddening of the skin due to radiation damage is called what?

Erythema

What are some possible long-term somatic effects of ionizing radiation?

1. Life-span shortening

2. Malignant neoplasm

3. Blood deficiencies

If a human is exposed to radiation levels in the 100-200 R range, what is expected?

Completed recovery within 90 days

Radiation exposure has been linked as a cause of what malignant diseases?

Leukemia

A person exhibiting radiation sickness would have what symptoms?

1. Nausea

2. Diarrhea

3. Loss of appetite

Why is radiation exposure to the gonads such a critical concern?

Mutations in offspring may occur

What is the amount of radiation necessary to produce a noticeable skin reaction called?

Erythema dose

Somatic effects of radiation relate to what?

Future generations

What determines the final effect from radiation?

1. Type of radiation

2. Type of tissue

3. Energy of radiation

What is the most radiosensitive area of the eye?

Lens

How has data been collected for the study of the effects of radiation exposure?

1. Therapy patients

2. Radiation workers

3. Atomic bomb survivors

50% of the radiation exposure to the general population comes from ____?

Medical and Dental radiographs

What situation will cause the greatest effect from radiation exposure?

Large dose over a short period of time

What cells would be affected by a relatively small amount of radiation exposure?

Leukocyte

What organ is considered radiosensitive?

Gonads

Early radiation therapy treatments for acne, tonsillitis, etc. has resulted in some cases of what?

Thyroid cancer

What would be the probable result of any major radiation exposure during the first few days of pregnancy?

Prenatal death

Three cardinal rules of radiation exposure:

1. Time

2. Distance

3. Shielding

What is the minimum distance you should try to stand back from radiation exposure?

6 feet

A 30 degree c-arm tilt will _____ exposure to the face and neck by a factor of ___.

Increase, 4

For a small to medium plaster cast, how should technique be adjusted?

Increase mAs 50-60%, increase kVp 5-7

The surgical team consists of a _____ who prepares the sterile field and sterilizes instruments

Scrub

The surgical teams consists of a _____ who assists the surgeon, including suctioning.

Surgical assistant

The absence of infectious organisms is termed:

Asepsis

Surgical attire consists of:

• hospital scrubs

• Mask

• Bouffant cap

• Shoe covers

• Protective eyewear

• Scrub cover/bunny suit

(True/False) The definition of conventional tomography is “a radiographic technique that employs motion to show anatomical structures lying in a plane of tissue while blurring or eliminating the detail in images of structures above and below the plane of interest”

True

Other names for tomography include:

• planigraphy

• Stratigraphy

• Laminography

• Body-section radiography

The x-ray tube and image receptor move in ____ directions around a stationary fulcrum (pivot point) during the exposure

Opposite

An object placed in the fulcrum (focal spot) will appear:

Sharp

Objects outside the focal plane will appear:

Blurred

The ____ the distance from the fulcrum, the greater the blurring

Greater

The loss of nearly all recorded detail of objects are outside the focal plane

Blur

The total distance the tube travels

Tomographic amplitude

The distance the tube travels during exposure

Exposure amplitude

The ____ is the pivot point around which the tube and IR move

Fulcrum

The area within the image that is in focus and shows satisfactory detail

Focal plane

The fulcrum is fixed and the patient is moved up and down to change the focal level

Grossman principle, fixed fulcrum

The section (slice) thickness is the depth of the focala plane is controlled by the:

Exposure angle

The distance between the fulcrum levels of successive slices:

Section interval

(True/False) the sectional interval should not exceed the section thickness

True

Tomographic tube movement is either _____ or complex

Linear

What tube movement is used for IVU’s?

Linear

Tube movements that qualify as complex:

1. Curvilinear

2. Elliptical

3. Circular

4. Trispiral

5. Figure 8

6. Hypocycloidal

Which two tube movements give the maximum tomographic amplitude and thinnest cut?

Trispiral and hypocyloidal

Complex motions often require ____ second exposures.

3-6

A specialized tomographic procedure, used to locate a lesion when the exact location is unknown

Zonography

Before starting an IV, what two things shoulder you verify with the patient?

Name and birthdate

How many times should you read the label of the drug or contrast being administered?

3

You should always ___ the procedure to the patient, and allow them to ask questions

Explain

Should you always ask the patient what their allergies are before administering contrast and/or drugs?

Yes

What are appropriate needle sizes for children?

23-25

Where should you apply a tourniquet?

3-4” above the site

You should always clean the puncture site with:

• alcohol

• Betadine

• Chloraprep

Do you puncture with the bevel up or down?

Down

At what angle do you puncture the skin for venipuncture?

25-45

What magnifies the image from the output phosphor onto a viewing glass?

Optical (mirror-optics) system

What mm film cameras are used in cine fluoroscopy?

16 or 35

Increased framing frequency will ___ patient dose.

Increase

Spot films produce very high

Quality images

In a ___ the machine received the image from the output phosphor, so there is less patient dose (about ½) than cassette spot film

Photospot camera

Most fluoro and commercial TV’s have:

525 scan lines

High resolution TV’s have 1024 or _____ scan lines

2048

What is the biggest advantage of video recording fluoroscopic procedures?

Can be played back immediately

During routine fluoroscopy, personnel are exposed to radiation scattered by the _____ and other objects being irradiated

Patient

Exposure ___ dramatically as the workers move away from the patient and table

Decreases

If a tower drape is used, where will most of the exposure/dose come from?

The head or foot of the table

____ is identified as a contrast media study of synovial joints and related soft tissue structures

Arthrography

The two most common arthrogrpahy procedures are done for:

Shoulders and knees

Any study involving the injection of a contrast media should have a signed ___ form

Consent

The only contraindication to arthrography would be if the patient is allergic to:

Local anesthetics and/or iodine based contrast

Common joints for arthrograms include:

1. Hip

2. Knee

3. Ankle

4. Shoulder

5. Elbow

6. Wrist

7. TMJ

What is the radiographic demonstration of the female reproductive tract with a contrast medium. This demonstrates the uterus and degree of openness of fallopian tubes

Hysterosalpingography

Myelography is a radiographic study of the _____ and its nerve root branches with a contrast medium

Spinal cord

What is the most common reason to do a myelography procedure?

Herniated nucleus pulposus

When the myelogram is done, keep the patients head ____ to avoid contrast media passing into cerebral ventricles.

Elevated slightly, 30-40 degrees

Where is contrast media most commonly injected for cervical myelography?

C1/C2

Where is contrast media most commonly injected for lumbar myelography?

L3/L4

What color should cerebrospinal fluid collected during myelography be?

Clear

What is a radiographic examination of the salivary glands and associated ducts with a contrast medium?

Sialography

The three major salivary glands, from largest to smallest are:

Parotid, submandibular, sublingual

Parotid duct is also known as:

Stensons duct

Submandibular/submaxillary duct is also know as:

Whartons duct

Ducts of rivinus is also known as:

Bartholins ducts

Exam performed to determine if there are any limb length discrepancies

Orthorentgenography

What is the name of a ruler used in the orthorentgenography?

Bell-Thompson