EMT 104 - Final 01

You are suspicious that a male patient without a helmet, who was ejected from a motorcycle, may have a basilar skull fracture as you conduct your rapid trauma assessment, which finding would reinforce the suspicion?

A. Blood coming from both ears

B. dilation and sluggish response to light of the pupil

C. clear fluid from the right ear and left nostril D. paralysis of the left arm and leg

C. clear fluid from the right ear and left nostril

A patient has fallen from a second story window onto the concrete sidewalk below. She is unresponsive and has deformity noted to the back and top of her skull. Additional assessment findings include abdominal bruising and an angulated left ankle. your partner reports the patient's vital signs are pulse 78 respiration 14 and irregular blood pressure 198 over 110 mmlHG and spo2 90% based on these assessment findings EMT would recognize:

A. Severe head injury with increasing pressure within the skull

B. history of high blood pressure for which prescribed medication have not been taken

C. shock caused by bleeding occurring within the skull

D. shock caused by bleeding in an area of the body other than the head

A. Severe head injury with increasing pressure within the skull

When using a flow restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device ( f r o p v d ), you should:

A. trigger the demand valve until the chest wall rises

B. avoid the use of chin-lift maneuver when using this device

C. close the relief valve to achieve greater Airway pressures

D. to press the demand valve for a total of 3 to 5 Seconds

B. avoid the use of chin-lift maneuver when using this device

What do you think is wrong with the patient in the previous question?

A. A CVA

B. An MI

C. A blood clot to the lung

D. an asthma attack

D. an asthma attack

While managing a choking victim who becomes unresponsive, you lower her to a Supine position. Your next step should be to:

A. Do a finger sweep

B. attempt to ventilate

C. initiate chest compressions

D. establish unresponsiveness

B. attempt to ventilate

Which is the recommended artery for obtaining a pulse in the unresponsive 1-year-old patient?

A. Femoral

B. Radial

C. Carotid

D. brachial

C. Carotid

Your patient is a 19-year-old with an abdominal injury. your initial assessment reveals a 7-in laceration with intestinal protrusion. you should:

A. replace organs and cover with a moistened sterile dressing

B. replace organs and apply the MAST suit

C. cover organs with a dry sterile dressing

D. cover organs with a moistened sterile and occlusive dressings

D. cover organs with a moistened sterile and occlusive dressings

When applying a spinal immobilization device (KED), manual support of the patient's head must be maintained until the:

A. The patient is fully immobilized and secured to the board

B. the patient is removed from the vehicle

C. assessment reveals no numbness or tingling in the extremities

D. application of rigid cervical and mobilization device is completed

A. The patient is fully immobilized and secured to the board

Which of the following assessment findings are most important when deciding to assist a patient administering prescribed nitroglycerin?

A. the respiratory status and the quality of the pulse

B. the blood pressure and the quality of the pulse

C. the nature of the pain and the blood pressure

D. the nature of the pain and the respiratory status

C. the nature of the pain and the blood pressure

According to bystanders, your patient took " a handful of pills". He withdrawals from painful stimuli, has warm skin, and moist, snoring respirations. your care should include:

A. insertion of nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway

B. immediately suctioning his oropharyngeal area

C. supplying high flow Oxygen by nasal cannula

D. supplying oxygen 4 L / min by non-rebreather mask

A. insertion of nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway

You are treating a burn victim who has received partial thickness Burns to her chest, face, back and abdomen. the severity of her Burns would be classified as:

A. Critical

B. Intermediate

C. Minor

D. moderate

A. Critical

The common medication the above person could be taking is:

A. Nitroglycerin

B. Lanoxin

C. Dilantin

D. LSD

A. Nitroglycerin

Stimulation of the vagus nerve will:

A. increase the heart rate

B. slow the heart rate

C. cause secretion of adrenaline

D. cause secretion of epinephrine

B. slow the heart rate

Unoxygenated blood first enters the heart at the:

A. Left atrium

B. right ventricle

C. left ventricle

D. Right atrium

D. Right atrium

To treat a patient in the previous question, you would:

A. Place patient in a sitting position, Monitor spo2 and give oxygen at 15L/min as required and transport code III

B. Place patient in souping and give oxygen at 2L/min and transport code II

C. Place patient in a recovery position, give oxygen at 15L/min and transport code III

D. Place patient on back with legs elevated and give high flow oxygen, transport quickly

A. Place patient in a sitting position, Monitor spo2 and give oxygen at 15L/min as required

"Pursed lip breathing" is characteristic of:

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B. congestive heart failure

C. Ketoacidosis

D. Pneumothorax

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

44. Drugs which are opiate derivatives, I.E heroin, usually ___________ pupils and other body systems

a. Constrict

b. Dilate

a. Constrict

46. The patient with eyes closed, no verbal sounds and no motor movements will score ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale.

a. 5

b. 15

c. 3

d. 0

c. 3

48. You are called to the home of a diabetic patient. he is conscious, but disoriented. two important questions you would ask him are?

A. did you take your insulin today and have you eaten?

B. can you move your hands and feet?

C. are you hyperglycemic or hypoglycemic?

D. what is your name and where do you live?

A. did you take your insulin today and have you eaten?

53. When a large quantity of IV fluid is given to a patient over a short period of time and the patient demonstrates signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure, this is called:

A. Infiltration

B. fluid overload

C. Embolus

D. pyrogenic reaction

B. fluid overload

A patient with a pulmonary embolism will present with sharp chest pain and:

A. rising blood pressure

B. slowing pulse

C. gradual onset

D. dyspnea which increases with respiration

D. dyspnea which increases with respiration

58. Which of the following is associated with acute alcohol intoxication?

A. has a 35% mortality

B. immediate danger of death from respiratory depression

C. symptoms usually present 12 to 48 hours after the patient's last drink

D. danger of cardiovascular collapse due to hypovolemic shock

B. immediate danger of death from respiratory depression

59. What happens inside the body during frostbite?

A. the hypothalamus in the brain begins to overheat

B. the cells die from lack of oxygen

C. to conserve heat, the body restricts the flow of blood to the skin into the extremities

D. the metabolic process inside the cell ceases

C. to conserve heat, the body restricts the flow of blood to the skin into the extremities

65. Without consent, the intentional touching of an individual is said to constitute:

A. good patient care

B. Abandonment

C. Neglect

D. assault/ battery

D. assault/ battery

76. If cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is draining from the left ear, the EMT should:

A. Apply a pressure dressing to the left ear

B. irrigate the ear with saline

C. pack the ear

D. cover the left ear with a loose dressing

D. cover the left ear with a loose dressing

76. To deliver high flow oxygen greater than 6 liters/ minute, it is better to utilize a:

A. Bag-valve-mask (BVM)

B. Nasal cannula (NC)

C. Tent

D. Non-rebreather mask (NRB)

D. Non-rebreather mask (NRB)

76. It is important to flush air out of the IV tubing prior to use because:

A. Air in the tubing can cause the blood to clot

B. air and the tubing can cause an air embolism

C. air in the tubing can change the electrolyte composition of the fluid

D. air in the tubing makes people dizzy

B. air and the tubing can cause an air embolism

76. The term used to describe an extrication that can be accomplished through the use of hand tools or skills such as breaking glass is called:

A. simple access

B. rapid extrication

C. complex access

D. disentanglement

A. simple access

76. You are called to a small rural hospital to transfer a severely burned female patient to the burn center. The patient has two IV's infusing medications and cardiac monitoring. As basic life support level EMT, you should:

A. transport using lights and siren (code 3)

B. refused to transport the patient without additional advanced medical personnel

C. transport using just your headlights (code 2)

D. cover the patient with a moist, sterile burn sheet and transport

D. cover the patient with a moist, sterile burn sheet and transport

76. Which of the following fractures is associated with severe twisting forces?

A. Spiral

B. Angulated

C. greenstick

D. comminuted

A. Spiral

76. The newborn should be positioned on his/ her:

A. back with head turned to the side

B. back with head elevated

C. side with head elevated

D. side with head lower than the body

D. side with head lower than the body

76. Two-year-old Charlie has eaten half a bottle of his grandmother's ferrous sulfate (iron) tablets. You should:

A. Do nothing

B. give activated charcoal

C. give syrup of Ipecac

D. transport immediately

D. transport immediately

76. Your geriatric patient is unconscious for no obvious reason. The family recalls that he fell 24 to 48 hours ago, hit his head and blacked out for a few seconds. When he regained consciousness, he refused any further intervention by the family. Given this scenario, he is most likely suffering from a/an:

A. acute epidural hematoma

B. subdural hematoma

C. epidural hematoma

D. intracerebral hemorrhage

B. subdural hematoma

76. The proper rate for rescue breathing in an infant is:

A. 10 times per minute

B. 15 times per minute

C. 20-30 times per minute

D. 12-20 times per minute

C. 20-30 times per minute

76. Which of the following is correct concerning in adults patients right to refuse medical care?

A. A competent patient may withdraw from medical treatment at anytime

B. when there is any doubt, it is best to avoid providing care without consent

C. any patient has the right to refuse medical treatment

D. documentation will not be helpful in cases of refusal of care

A. A competent patient may withdraw from medical treatment at anytime

76. Your trauma patient presents with pale, cool, clammy skin, and an altered mental status. The EMT should consider that the patient is suffering from:

A. spinal cord damage

B. a medical problem

C. a head injury

D. a cardiac problem

B. a medical problem

76. When providing emergency medical care to a patient with a head injury, it is important to know that:

A. use direct pressure to control bleeding and fluid leaking from the ears and nose

B. manual inline spinal stabilization must always be held until a cervical collar and backboard are applied

C. the patient should be placed in the Trendelenburg position to prevent shock

D. oxygen deficiency in the brain is the most frequent cause of death following head injury

D. oxygen deficiency in the brain is the most frequent cause of death following head injury

76. Elderly patients are at particular risk for heat related emergencies because they:

A. have higher pulse rates and low blood pressure

B. are less sensitive to heat and have better blood supply to the extremities

C. have poor thermoregulation and may take many medications

D. are not very mobile and cannot remove their own clothing

C. have poor thermoregulation and may take many medications

76. Signs and symptoms of a neurological deficit include:

A. cool, clammy skin

B. chest pain

C. weakness or paralysis

D. deep, regular respirations

C. weakness or paralysis

76. You arrive to find Mrs. Jones pulseless and apneic. Her husband and better inform you that she has a DNR order, but they cannot find it right now. What should you do for her?

A. Start CPR and call for medical direction

B. start CPR and transport

C. nothing until you contact her physician

D. Respect the families wishes and do nothing

A. Start CPR and call for medical direction

76. Mr. Wilson is being transferred from one hospital to another period he has an IV in place. Your care for this patient should include:

A. increasing the HIV rate if the patient displays signs of hypovolemia

B. slowing down the IV if the flow rate is more than you are directed to maintain

C. turning the IV off if blood is observed in the tubing

D. lowering the IV bag if flow rates increase

B. slowing down the IV if the flow rate is more than you are directed to maintain

76. the man awakens and identifies that he is a seizure patient, on medication. What would you anticipate?

A. Code 3 transport

B. the need for restraints

C. the police will need to detain the patient

D. the LOC to improve to 4, that the patient does not want to be transported, and the patient signs a medical release

D. the LOC to improve to 4, that the patient does not want to be transported, and the patient signs a medical release

76. The proper position for a child with a Nosebleed, who does not show signs of a head injury is:

A. seated leaning slightly forward

B. laying down with head tilted back

C. lying down with his/ her head on pillows

D. seated with head tilted back

A. seated leaning slightly forward

76. A child has a toy stuck in his airway. He is coughing forcefully. You would:

A. do the Heimlich maneuver

B. do a blind finger sweep of the mouth to remove the toy

C. give 5 back blows

D. do nothing, but observe closely

D. do nothing, but observe closely

76. A requirement of normal tissue perfusion is:

A. an intact vascular system that can vary the resistance to blood flow

B. adequate blood and plasma volume

C. a properly functioning heart

D. an intact integumentary system

B. adequate blood and plasma volume

151) Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

a) Herniation

b) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

c) Central neurogenic hyperventilation

d) Ataxic respirations

b) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

151) Characteristics of a second degree burn include:

a) Reddening of the skin

b) Painful damage to and including the epidermis, with resultant blisters

c) Painful damage to and including the dermis, with resultant blisters

d) Painless damage to and including the subcutaneous layer, appearing white or charred

c) Painful damage to and including the dermis, with resultant blisters

151) You care for an unconscious car accident victim with second and third degree burns over 45% of the body should include:

a) Covering eyes with dry, sterile dressings

b) Immobilizing the spine

c) Applying ice packs on extremities

d) Administering non-humidified oxygen

b) Immobilizing the spine

151) A crushed steering wheel found in a car accident would lead you to suspect what possible life-threatening injuries to the driver?

a) Lumbar spine injury

b) Liver injury

c) Ruptured appendix

d) Fractured femur

b) Liver injury

151) In the above incident, this child will most likely be exhibiting:

a) Vomiting

b) Kussmaul respirations

c) Normal BP

d) Dry mouth

b) Kussmaul respirations

151) The term for the passage of dark tarry blood in the stool is:

a) Melena

b) Dysphagia

c) Hematemesis

d) Hematochezia

a) Melena

151) Paradoxical breathing with severe pain is a good sign of what condition?

a) Pericardial tamponade

b) Lung contusion

c) Flail chest

d) Traumatic emphysema

c) Flail chest

151) Infants are likely to lose more body heat than adults because:

a) Their normal body temperature is low

b) Infants lose body heat as they cry

c) Infants have intense sensitivity to temperature

d) They have greater body surface area in proportion to their weight

d) They have greater body surface area in proportion to their weight

151) The initial basic step in cleaning and disinfecting contaminated equipment is to:

a) Wash with disinfectant

b) Soak in water

c) Soak in bleach

d) Wash with soap and water

d) Wash with soap and water

151) In attempting to clear an obstructed airway in an infant, the EMT should:

a) Use a combination of chest thrusts and abdominal thrusts to remove the obstruction

b) Use only the jaw thrust method

c) Be careful not to hyperextend the neck

d) Turn the infant's head to one side

c) Be careful not to hyperextend the neck

151) When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the EMT should:

a) Insert the airway adjunct against the top of the nares

b) Insert without a lubricant

c) Lubricate the airway adjunct with a water based lubricant

d) Lubricate the airway adjunct with petroleum jelly

c) Lubricate the airway adjunct with a water based lubricant

151) Treatment of a patient suffering from COPD should consist of calming him slash her, maintaining a sitting position, obtaining a medical history, checking lung sounds, and starting oxygen via NC at:

a) 4 liters / min

b) 2 liters / min

c) 6 liters / min

d) 8 liters / min

b) 2 liters / min

151) Which of the following patients with abnormal SpO2 readings typically require can benefit from supplemental oxygen?

a) Pneumothorax patients

b) Diabetic patients

c) Chest pain patients

d) Emphysemic patients

d) Emphysemic patients

151) In resuscitation of a newborn, the EMT's first step would be to:

a) Cardiac compressions

b) Place advanced airways and BVM

c) Dry, warm, and stimulate

d) Medications

c) Dry, warm, and stimulate