Virology Exam 3 Quiz Questions

Tumors lose the balance between cell ___________ and ___________

proliferation; differentiation

Please match the description of cancer cell activity/gene with its hallmark - p53

evading cell death

Please match the description of cancer cell activity/gene with its hallmark - VEGF

Obtaining nutrients

Please match the description of cancer cell activity/gene with its hallmark - Activation of signal transduction pathways

Uncontrollable growth

Please match the description of cancer cell activity/gene with its hallmark - Release of reactive oxygen species

tumor-promoting inflammation

When HBx integrates into the genome of a _________, it increases expression of ___________

hepatocyte; Cyclin D1

What is a mechanism cancer cells use to evade destruction by the immune system

1. express a cell surface protein that suppresses the action of immune cells

2. mimic immune cells

3. commit cell death

4. activate matrix metalloproteinases

1. express a cell surface protein that suppresses the action of immune cells

True or False: All types of HPV are equally capable of resultin gin cancer formation

False

Which of the following is not characteristic of transformed cells?

1. Contact inhibition

2. Phenotypic changes

3. Growth without growth factors

4. Cell immortality

1. Contact inhibition

Which of the following is NOT true of the HBx protein in hepatitis B?

1. It facilitates uncontrollable growth by stimulating the production of cyclins

2. It facilitates metastasis by stimulating the expression of matrix metalloproteinases

3. It promotes genetic instability by inducing the formation of a multipolar spindle during mitosis

4. It facilitates tumor survival in low-oxygen conditions by increasing HIF1 leves

5. All of these are true of the HBx protein

3. It promotes genetic instability by inducing the formation of a multipolar spindle during mitosis

The HBZ gene is…

1. a gene found in HPV-16, which induces the formation of a multipolar spindle during mitosis

2. a gene found in hepatitis B which activates an oncogene that leads to increased production of cyclins

3. a gene found in HTLV1 that helps cancer cells avoid the immune response

4. a gene found in hepatitis B that increases the production of HIF1, which allows tumors to survive in low-oxygen conditions

5. None of these is correct

3. a gene found in HTLV1 that helps cancer cells avoid the immune response

In HPV-16 infected cells, the _____ protein induces the formation of multipolar spindles, which leads to _________________.

1. E6; genomic instability

2. E7; genomic instability

3. E2; genomic instability

4. E7; anchorage dependence

5. E6; anchorage independence

2. E7; genomic instability

True or false: Transformation is the same thing as oncogenesis

False

Approximately 25% to 50% of all cancers involve a mutation in the __________ family of proto-oncogenes, which is involved in promoting cell division

1. RB

2. HBx

3. MYC

4. SRC

5. RAS

5. RAS

Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 hallmarks of cancer?

1. Becoming immortal

2. Evading cell death

3. Anchorage dependence

4. Tumor-promoting inflammation

5. Escaping immune destruction

3. Anchorage dependence

Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of a transformed cell?

1. Immortality

2. Lower nutrient requirements

3. Contact inhibition

4. Changes in phenotype

5. All of these are characteristics of a transformed cell

3. Contact inhibition

True or false: The first oncogenic virus to be discovered was one that causes cancer in humans

False

Which of the following is most directly related to the cancer hallmark of becoming immortal?

1. Matrix metalloproteinases

2. VEGF

3. Telomerase

4. HBZ

5. E6

3. Telomerase

Which of the following is NOT a human oncogenic virus?

1. Hepatitis B virus

2. Poliovirus

3. Epstein-Barr virus

4. Hepatitis C virus

5. All of these are human oncogenic viruses

2. Poliovirus

Which of the following vaccine platforms is most likely to require an adjuvant? Select all that apply.

1. Subunit

2. Inactivated

3. Attenuated

4. Viral Vector

1. Subunit

2. Inactivated

What is the purpose of the two mutations in the Spike protein mRNA?

1. inhibits the virulence of the vaccine

2. stabilizes the mRNA so its not degraded too quickly

3. keep S protein in its prefusion conformation

4. blocks the S protein from binding with the ACE2 receptor

1. keep S protein in its prefusion conformation

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

1. kill cells infected with virus

2. produce neutralizing antibodies

3. recognize and destroy the virus

1. kill cells infected with virus

True or False: Remesdivir is the only antiviral treatment currently approved to treat SARS-CoV-2 infection.

False

Please match the antiviral to the virus: Remdesivir

1. Herpes Simplex Virus

2. Influenza B

3. Sars-CoV-2

4. Influenza A

3. Sars-CoV-2

Please match the antiviral to the virus: Acyclovir

1. Herpes Simplex Virus

2. Influenza B

3. Sars-CoV-2

4. Influenza A

1. Herpes Simplex Virus

Please match the antiviral to the virus: Amantadine

1. Herpes Simplex Virus

2. Influenza B

3. Sars-CoV-2

4. Influenza A

4. Influenza A

Please match the antiviral to the virus: Tamiflu

1. Herpes Simplex Virus

2. Influenza B

3. Sars-CoV-2

4. Influenza A

2. Influenza B

One major advantage of a mRNA vaccine approach is that____________________. This is in important because _________________________.

it allows the viral protein to be made by the human cells; its processed by the MHC Class 1 pathway.

Which of the following was the first disease to be eradicated due to widespread vaccination? 

1. Measles

2. Polio

3. Smallpox

3. Smallpox

What is the result of a cucleoside analog?

1. the viral polymerase activity is blocked

2. viral particles are not released into the cytoplasm

3. increase in the frequency of the mutations during viral replication

4. host proteins cannot phosphorylate the substrate

1. the viral polymerase activity is blocked

Please match the drug to the mechanism:

1. nucleoside analog

2. neuraminidase inhibitor

3. ion channel blocker

1. tamiflu

2. amantadine

3. acyclovir

nucleoside analog - acyclovir

neuraminidase inhibitor - tamiflu

ion channel blocker - amantadine

Amantadine specifically targets _____________ and is effective against ______________.

1. m2 ion channel proteins; influenza A and influenza B

2. M2 ion channel proteins; influenza A only

3. neuraminidase; influenza A and influenza B

4. hemagglutinin; influenza A only

5. neuraminidase; influenza A only

2. M2 ion channel proteins; influenza A only

One example of a subunit vaccine is the _______________ vaccine, which contains only the HBsAg surface antigen protein

1. poilo

2. hepatitis B

3. measles

4. coronavirus

5. adenovirus

2. hepatitis B

How does the dsDNA in the Johnson & Johnson coronavirus vaccine enter the host cell?

1. Via receptor-mediated endocytosis

2. Via a bacterial vector

3. Via a lipid nanoparticle vector

4. Via a viral vector

5. Through electrical transfection

4. Via a viral vector

Which of the following BESt describes Remdesivir’s mechanism of action against SARS-CoV-2?

1. Nucleoside analog

2. Protease inhibitor

3. Integrase inhibitor

4. M2 ion channel protein inhibitor

5. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)

1. Nucleoside analog

The mechanism of action of Acyclovir is most similar to which of the following?

1. Tamiflu

2. NNRTIs

3. CCR5 antagonists

4. Amantadine

5. Remdesivir

5. Remdesivir

A major aspect of the development of the coronavirus vaccine was a mutation that stabilized the _________ protein in a ____________ configuration.

1. spike; pre-fusion

2. hemagglutinin; pre-fusion

3. spike; post-fusion

4. neuraminidase; pre-fusion

5. hemagglutinin; post-fusion

1. spike; pre-fusion

Tamiflu is a(n)…

1. nucleoside analog that is used to treat SARS-CoV-2

2. M2 ion channel protein inhibitor that is used to treat the influenza virus

3. protease inhibitor that is used to treat HIV

4. neuraminidase inhibitor that is used to treat the influenza virus

5. nucleoside analog that is used to treat herpes viruses

4.neuraminidase inhibitor that is used to treat the influenza virus

True or False; Adenoviruses are commonly used vectors in viral vector vaccines

True

The Moderna coronavirus vaccine is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine

1. viral vector

2. nucleic acid

3. live attenuates

4. inactivated

5. subunit

2. nucleic acid

Nucleoside analogs like Acyclovir and Remdesivir are BEST described as targeting what part of the viral life cycle?

1. Fusion and entry

2. Polyprotein cleavage and viral maturation

3. Assembly

4. Nucleic acid synthesis

5. Uncoating

4. Nucleic acid synthesis

Which of the following characteristics of gene therapy viruses, allows scientists to overcome the issue of immune responses developed against a virus? 

1. Availability of multiple serotypes

2. Genome capacity

3. Pathogenicity

4. Immunogenicity

1. Availability of multiple serotypes

True or False: Oncolytic viruses can be modified in such a way that they are able to infect both normal and cancerous cells but will only replicate in the cancer cells.

True

Of the viruses used in gene therapy discussed in the lecture, which can be easily grown in cell culture? Select all that apply

1. Adenoviruses

2. Retroviruses

3. AAV

1. Adenoviruses

2. Retroviruses

A valid and significant challenge in gene therapy is: Select ALL that apply.

1. determining the integration site

2. finding a disease to treat

3. controlling the dosage of a therapeutic gene

4. balancing the risk of an immune response

1. determining the integration site

   3. controlling the dosage of a therapeutic gene

   4. balancing the risk of an immune response

The first gene therapy tested in humans treated ________________ by delivering a functional __________________ gene.

Severe Combined Immune Deficiency; Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)

You are designing a gene therapy to replace a defective fibrillin gene, which is 22,000 bp long and is important in preventing macular degeneration. Based on your knowledge and resources available from class, which vector is best to use?

1. Adenovirus

2. Retrovirus

3. HSV-1

4. AAV

1. Adenovirus

Which of the following is a disadvantage to retroviruses as gene therapy vectors? 

1. Integration can lead to transformation

2. Transient gene expression

3. Narrow target cell range

4. Low inflammatory response

1. Integration can lead to transformation

True or False: Adeno-associated virus (AAV) is being explored as a vector for gene therapy in part because of it's large genome capacity.

False

Which of the following viruses are used as vectors for gene therapy treatments?  Check all that apply.

1. Reoviruses

2. Retroviruses

3. Noroviruses

4. Adenoviruses

2. Retroviruses

   4. Adenoviruses

What makes adeno-associated viruses unique among the other viral vectors discussed in class?

1. It infects non-dividing cells but not dividing cells

2. Its integration is site-specific and not random

3. It integrates its genome into the host’s genome

4. It has the largest genome capacity

5. All of these are correct

2. Its integration is site-specific and not random

True or False: All current human gene therapy is carried out using somatic cells

True

The existence of a variety of serotypes of a particular viral vector is important in …

1. overcoming the host’s immune response

2. ensuring that the therapeutic gene can be integrated into the vector

3. growing the virus quickly in culture

4. ensuring that the vector can infect both dividing and non-dividing cells

5. ensuring that the cector is able to gain entry to host cells

1. overcoming the host’s immune response

Which of the following BEST describes cancer?

1. Complex disorder

2. Mendelian disorder

3. Single-gene disorder

4. Monogenic disorder

5. All of these are correct

1. Complex disorder

Which of the following are currently the most commonly used viral vectors

1. Lentivirus

2. Adenovirus

3. AAVs

4. Retroviruses

5. Vaccinia virus

2. Adenovirus

Which of the following is an effective “wold-type” oncolytic virus that has infected nearly every adult in the United States?

1. Norovirus

2. Retroviruses

3. AAV

4. Reovirus

5. Adenovirus

4. Reovirus

In class, we discussed three viral vectors in detail: adenovirus, AAV and retroviruses. Which of these has the largest genome capacity?

1. AAV

2. AAV and retroviruses are approximately tied with respect to genome capacity. Wither one of them could be considered the target

3. Adenovirus

4. Adenoviruses and retroviruses are approximately tied with respect to genome capacity. Either one of them could be considered the target

5. Retroviruses

3. Adenovirus

Which of the following is an example of a therapy that targets the tumor microenvironment rather than the tumor cells themselves?

1. An AAV that has been genetically modified to produce a protein that blocks VEGF

2. A “wild-type” reovirus that targets tumors with activated RAS oncogenes

3. An AAV that has been genetically modified to express human granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), a cytokine that promotes recruitment and maturation of dendritic cells

4. An AAV that delivers a functional RPE65 gene

5. All of these are correct

1. An AAV that has been genetically modified to produce a protein that blocks VEGF

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using a vector that integrates its genome into the host DNA?

1. Only non-dividing cells can be treates

2. Genome replication is uncontrolled and unpredictable

3. There is an increased risk of cancer

4. Expression of the therapeutic gene is not stable

5. More than one of these is correct

1. There is an increased risk of cancer

To treat a patient with SCID, doctors extracted her white blood cells, grew them in culture, and then allowed viruses to infect them. The viruses delivered a functional adenosine deaminase gene - the gene that was defective in SCID patients - to her cells. Doctors then injected the “working” cells back into the patient. This method of treatment is BEST described as…

1. germline gene therapy involving cell-based (ex vivo) delivery

2. somatic gene therapy involving cell-based (ex vivo) delivery

3. somatic gene therapy involving direct (in vivo) delivery

4. germline gene therapy involving direct (in vivo) delivery

5. none of these is correct

2. somatic gene therapy involving cell-based (ex vivo) delivery

Which of the following are true about viruses that infect fungi? Select all that apply.

1. They are often avirulent

2. They are often virulent

3. They are usually transmitted horizontally

4. They are usually transmitted vertically

1. They are often avirulent

   4. They are usually transmitted vertically

Viruses of eukaryotic microbes tend to have which type of genome?

1. ssRNA

2. dsRNA

3. ssDNA

4. dsDNA

2. dsRNA

True or False: Viruses of both Archaea and Bacteria can have a "head-tail" morphology.

True

Viruses of archaea tend to have which type of genome?

1. ssRNA

2. dsRNA

3. ssDNA

4. dsDNA

4. dsDNA

What is the most common mechanism of bacteriophage release from host cells?

1. Extrusion

2. Lysis

3. Budding

4. Exocytosis

2. Lysis

Most known bacteriophages have which type of morphology?

1. Siphovirus

2. Podovirus

3. Myovirus

4. Microvirus

1. Siphovirus

The first giant virus isolated was __________, and it was named in part because it was “__________________”

Mimivirus; mimicking bacteria

Which of the following features do archaeal viruses use to bind their host cells?

1. Haemagglutinin

2. Spikes

3. Filaments

4. Claws

2. Spikes

3. Filaments

4. Claws

Phages are…

1. viruses that are capable of lysogeny

2. bacteria that specifically infect human cells

3. viruses that specifically infect bacteria

4. viruses that specifically infect human cells

5. bacteria that specifically infect viruses

3. viruses that specifically infect bacteria

Anti-CRIPSRs are…

1. produced by bacteria as a means to evade a virus’s innate immune defense

2. produced by viruses as a means to evade a bacterium’s adaptive immune defense

3. produced by viruses as a means to evade a bacterium’s innate immune defense

4. produced by bacteria as a means to evade a virus’s adaptive immune defense

5. None of these is correct

1. produced by viruses as a means to evade a bacterium’s adaptive immune defense

Which of the following is a cycle in which new phage particles are produced continuously over long periods of time but without apparent cell killing?

1. Chronic cycle

2. Lysogenic cycle

3. Lytic cycle

4. More than one of these is correct

5. None of these is correct

1. Chronic cycle

Endolysins, holins, and spanins are most directly involved in which of the mechanisms of release for new viral particles?

1. Extrusion

2. Budding

3. Lysis

4. More than one of these is correct

5. None of these is correct

3. Lysis

The stargate vertex is a structure on the….

1. host cell membrane through which DNA enters during a Mimivirus infection

2. viral capsid of Mimivirus through which DNA enters the host cell

3. host cell membrane where new Mimivirus virions assemble

4. viral capsid of Mimivirus where assembly of a new virion takes place

5. host cell membrane where new virions are released

1. viral capsid of Mimivirus through which DNA enters the host cell

The CRISPR/Cas system is…

1. an innate immune mechanism by viruses against bacteria

2. an adaptive immune mechanism of viruses against bacteria

3. an adaptive immune mechanism by bacteria against viruses

4. an innate immune mechanism by bacteria against viruses

5. None of these is correct

3. an adaptive immune mechanism by bacteria against viruses

The ratio of viruses in the human virome to cells in the human body is likely…

1. about 1:1

2. much less than 1:1

3. about 0.75:1

4. much greater than 1:1

5. The question errs. There are non viruses in the human virome

4. much greater than 1:1

Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of phage therapy

1. Phages can be applied in a relatively low dose

2. Most phages can be produced at a relatively low cost

3. Many phage therapies can be applied within a single dose

4. Both lytic and lysogenic phages can be used

5. All of these are advantages of phage therapy

1. Both lytic and lysogenic phages can be used

Which of the following phage families consists of viruses that have a dsDNA genome an a long contractile tail with tail fibers?

1. Leviviridae

2. Myoviridae

3. Inoviridae

4. Siphoviridae

5. Podoviridar

2. Myoviridae

Restricton enzymes are…

1. produced by bacteria as an adaptive immune defense against viruses

2. produced by bacteria as an innate immune defense against viruses

3. produced by viruses as an innate immune defense against bacteria

4. produced by eukaryotic hosts as an adaptive immune defense against both viruses and bacteria

5. produced by viruses as an adaptive immune defense against bacteria

2. produced by bacteria as an innate immune defense against viruses

16s rRNA sequencing can be used to: 

1. determine the function of members of a microbial ecosystem

2. study the biodiversity of bacteria in a complex environmental sample

3. determine the evolutionary relationships among community members of a virome

2. study the biodiversity of bacteria in a complex environmental sample

Which of the following has the greatest impact on the composition of the virome?

1. age

2. medications

3. geography

4. diet

3. geography

The gut virome is more or less established:

1. after antibiotic treatment

2. in utero

3. from the mother’s breastmilk

4. by one month of age

4. by one month of age

True or False: To date, there have been no associations between the virome and human disease.

False

True or False: Viruses are responsible for releasing approximately 10 billion tons of carbon per day.

True

Viruses in the environment can alter host metabolism by encoding...

1. auxiliary microbial genes

2. auxotrophic microbial genes

3. auxotrophic metabolic genes

4. auxiliary metabolic genes

4. auxiliary metabolic genes

True or False: Most of the ciruses in the human virome are eukaryotic viruses

False

Individuals with certain disease states experience ________________, or an imbalance of the microflora that make up the microbiome

1. lysogeny

2. induction

3. extrusion

4. dysbiosis

5. probiotic

4. dysbiosis

At about one month of age, a baby has…

1. no virome at all

2. a virome that primarily consists of eukaryotic viruses

3. a virome that consists exclusively of viruses acquired from the child’s mother via breast milk

4. a virome that consists of bacteriophages and eukaryotic viruses in equal proportion

5. a virome that primarily consists of bacteriophages

5. a virome that primarily consists of bacteriophages

_______________ is a sequence-based method that involves sequencing all of the DNA in a sample

1. Targeted metagenomics

2. Pjage therapy

3. Probiotics

4. Shotgun metagenomics

5. None of these is correct

4. Shotgun metagenomics

Which of the following is a complication involved in the use of shotgun metagenomics for viral analysis?

1. Viruses not present in high abundance will not be detected.

2. Reverse transcriptase is an error-prone enzyme

3. Not all viruses have DNA genomes

4. Databases of known viral sequences are relatively small

5. All of these are correct

5. All of these are correct

True or False: in general, geography plays a more important role than genetics in determining the composition of an individual’s gut microbiome

True

Which of the following is FALSE of metagenomics?

1. The 16S rRNA gene is often used as a “universal marker” for metagenomic analysis of bacteria

2. Traditional methods favored the identification of RNA viruses over DNA viruses

3. Metagenomics is the study of genetic material recovered directly from environmental samples.

4. It provides the raw data for phylogenomics, or the use of genome data to reconstruct evolutionary history

5. All of these are true

2. Traditional methods favored the identification of RNA viruses over DNA viruses

16S rRNA can be used as a universal marker for the analysis of the evolution of…

1. bacteria, archaea, and viruses only

2. bacteria and archaea only

3. viruses only

4. bacteria only

5. bacteria and eukaryotes only

2. bacteria and archaea only

Which of the following is used as a universal marker in the analysis of prokaryotic genomes?

1. CCR5

2. 16S rRNA

3. Integrase

4. Cro protein

5. cl repressor

2. 16S rRNA

In general, __________ diverse microbiomes and _____________ diverse viromes are associated with healthier ecosystems.

1. less; less

2. less; more

3. more; less

4. These generalizations cannot be made

5. more; more

5. more; more