Physiology week 1-4 (exam1)

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147 Terms

1
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Cell organelles that process, phosphorylate, and glycosylate substances formed in the Endoplasmic Reticulum are

 

Nucleus

Golgi Apparatus

Cytoplasm

Mitochondria

Golgi Apparatus

2
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Which of the following substances have a higher extracellular concentration compared to the intracellular concentration?

Sodium and chloride 

Chloride and potassium

Potassium and proteins

Potassium and sodium

Sodium and chloride

3
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The most abundant cell membrane lipids are

phospholipids.

cholesterol.

sphingolipids.

triglycerides.

phospholipids.

4
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Which of the following transport mechanisms requires a protein carrier?

 

Primary active transport onl

Primary active transport, secondary active transport, and facilitated diffusion

Facilitated diffusion only

Primary active transport and secondary active transport only

Primary active transport, secondary active transport, and facilitated diffusion

5
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Potential difference generated across a membrane when a charged solute (an ion) diffuses down its concentration gradient is called

 

Equilibrium potential

Osmotic potential

Diffusion potential

Membrane potential

Diffusion potential

6
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The process of making the membrane potential less negative is called

 

Depolarization

Repolarization

Hyperpolarization

Overshoot

depolarization

7
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The _______ endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes and is involved in protein synthesis.

rough

8
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The Golgi apparatus is responsible for packaging and modifying substances like proteins and lipids.

true

9
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What is the primary function of the nucleus?

It acts as the control center of the cell, directing cell growth, replication, and death.

10
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Which compartment contains the highest concentration of potassium (K⁺)?

A. Plasma
B. Interstitial fluid
C. Intracellular fluid
D. Extracellular fluid

Intracellular fluid

11
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The ______ separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid.

Cell membrane

12
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Which type of transport does not require energy and uses a carrier protein?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Primary active transport
D. Secondary active transport

B. Facilitated diffusion

13
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The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump moves ___ Na⁺ out and ___ K⁺ into the cell.

3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in

14
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Ion channels are formed by ______ proteins that span the cell membrane.

integral

15
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During an action potential, sodium channels open causing ______.

depolarization

16
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true or false The absolute refractory period is when a second action potential can be initiated with a stronger stimulus.

false

17
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What is defined as the development of unhealthy conditions or disease?

 

Pathogenesis

Physiology

Clinical pathology

Pathology

Pathogenesis

18
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At the tissue level, blood flow below the minimum necessary to maintain cell homeostasis and metabolic function is called

 

Anoxia

Necrosis

Ischemia

Hypoxia

Ischemia

19
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The presence of which types of cells is associated with chronic inflammation?

Macrophages

Mast cells

Neutrophils

T cells

Macrophages

20
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The three important components of tissue healing include:

 

Fibronectin, proteoglycans and collagen

Fibronectin, proteoglycans and fibroblasts

Macrophages, proteoglycans and collagen

 Fibronectin, phospholipids and collagen

Fibronectin, proteoglycans and collagen

21
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In this type of healing the initial union of the edges of a wound progresses to complete healing without granulation

 

Secondary Intention

No answer text provided.

Tertiary Intention

Primary Intention

Primary Intention

22
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During this phase of fracture healing and repair, there is formation of the soft callus, seen on radiographs around 2 weeks after the injury, which is eventually replaced by a hard callus

 

Proliferative phase

Reparative phase

Remodeling phase

Inflammatory phase

Reparative phase

23
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The primary function of the Autonomic systems is to

 

Regulate the function of the somatosensory system

 

Regulate the function of the  proprioceptive system

 

Regulate the function of the motor system

 

Regulate the function of visceral organs

Regulate the function of visceral organs

24
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The preganglionic sympathetic neurons originate in the

 

paravertebral ganglia

 

prevertebral ganglia

 

nuclei of the thoracolumbar spinal cord

 

nuclei of the craniosacral spinal cord

nuclei of the thoracolumbar spinal cord

25
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Which phase of fracture healing involves the conversion of soft callus into hard callus?

ossification

26
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Which of the following are correctly paired?

 

Sympathetic stimulation—increased heart rate

 

Parasympathetic stimulation—increased heart rate

 

Sympathetic stimulation—constriction of bronchi

 

Parasympathetic stimulation—increased contractility of the heart

Sympathetic stimulation—increased heart rate

27
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Which of the following receptor types mediates an increase in heart rate and contractility?

 

Beta-2 receptors

 

Alpha-2 receptors

 

Beta-1 receptors

 

Alpha-1 receptors

Beta-1 receptors

28
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Which of the following receptors is found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia?

 

Muscarinic

 

Dopaminergic

 

Adrenergic

 

Nicotinic

 

Nicotinic

29
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What is the molecular foundation of the action potential?

 

Increase in potassium permeability

 

Increase in calcium permeability

 

Increase in magnesium permeability

 

Increase in sodium permeability

Increase in sodium permeability

30
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Which of the following components of the circulatory system has the largest distribution of blood volume?

 

Pulmonary Circulation

 

Veins

 

Heart

 

Arteries

 

Veins

31
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Ejection fraction is :

 

A good indicator of the heart’s pumping ability

 

Normally less than 50%

 

Obtained during a graded exercise test

 

A good indicator of the heart’s electrical activity

A good indicator of the heart’s pumping ability

32
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A patient with a cardiac arrhythmia is referred to physical therapist services for cardiac rehabilitation. The therapist is aware that the heart receives nerve impulses that begin in the sinoatrial node of the heart and then proceed to which of the following:

 

Purkinje fibers, then to the bundle branches, and then to the atrioventricular node

 

Atrioventricular node, then to the bundle branches, and then to the Purkinje fibers

 

Atrioventricular node, then to the Purkinje fibers, and then to the bundle branches

 

Bundle branches, then to the atrioventricular node, and then to the Purkinje fibers

Atrioventricular node, then to the bundle branches, and then to the Purkinje fibers

33
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Sympathetic effects on the heart

 

releases acetylcholine at sympathetic ending.

 

causes increased sinus node discharge

 

decreases rate of conduction of impulse.

 

increases force of contraction only in ventricles.

causes increased sinus node discharge

34
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 Which one of the following parts of the circulation has the highest systolic pressure?

 

Veins

 

Capillaries

 

Aorta

 

Small arteries

Aorta

35
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An increase in arterial pressure results in which one of the following?

 

 

Increase  in plasma aldosterone concentration

 

Increase in sodium resorption

 

Decrease in plasma angiotensin II concentration

 

Increase in plasma angiotensin II concentration

 

Decrease in plasma angiotensin II concentration

36
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An increase in which of the following tends to increase lymph flow?

 

Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure

 

net filtration pressure

 

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

 

All of these

All

37
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Disease-independent changes in the aging heart associated with a reduction in function include the following:

 

 

Higher capillary density

 

Increase  in calcium transport across membranes

 

Increases  in the intracellular response to β-adrenergic stimulation

 

Reduction in the number of myocytes and cells within the conduction tissue

Reduction in the number of myocytes and cells within the conduction tissue

38
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Myocardial ischemia and infarction most commonly affect this chamber

 

Left atrium

 

Right Atrium

 

Right Ventricle

 

Left ventricle

Left ventricle

39
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Q3: What is the correct sequence of events in skin wound healing?

A. Inflammation → Hemostasis → Proliferation → Remodeling

B. Hemostasis → Inflammation → Proliferation → Remodeling

C. Hemostasis → Remodeling → Proliferation → Inflammation

D. Proliferation → Hemostasis → Inflammation → Remodeling

B. Hemostasis → Inflammation → Proliferation → Remodeling

40
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Q2: During which phase of fracture healing is a hematoma formed?

A. Remodeling phase
B. Reparative phase
C. Inflammatory phase
D. Ossification phase

. Inflammatory phase

41
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A patient presents with a mid-shaft tibial fracture. You are reviewing the stages of fracture healing. Which of the following correctly represents the typical sequence of bone healing after a fracture?

A. Inflammatory phase → Remodeling phase → Reparative phase
B. Reparative phase → Inflammatory phase → Remodeling phase
C. Inflammatory phase → Reparative phase → Remodeling phase
D. Remodeling phase → Inflammatory phase → Reparative phase

  • Inflammatory Phase (Days 1–7):

Blood vessels rupture → hematoma forms.

Inflammatory cells (macrophages, neutrophils) clean up debris.

Cytokines and growth factors are released to initiate healing.

  • Reparative Phase (Weeks 1–3):

Formation of a soft callus (fibrocartilage).

Gradual transition to a hard callus (woven bone).

New blood vessels grow in.

  • Remodeling Phase (Months to years):

Woven bone is replaced with lamellar bone.

Bone is reshaped to restore original structure and strength.

42
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what are the 2 synapses locations ganglia and differentiate them.

paravertebral - along spinal cord. effects head neck and thoracic limbs prevertebral - anterior to the vertebral column. effects abdominal and pelvic organ

43
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true or false preganglionic neurons are always chlonliogentic (releasing ACL) while postganglionic neurons can either adrenergic (NE) or cholinergic

true

44
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explain the difference between Somatic Nervous System (SNS) and Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

SNS: voluntary ANS: automatic

45
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Differentiate between adrenergic and cholinergic neurons.

Adrenergic neurons release norepinephrine. Cholinergic neurons release acetylcholine.

46
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True or False The parasympathetic nervous system originates in the thoracolumbar region.

False Explanation: It originates in the craniosacral region.

47
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Which neurotransmitter is usually released by postganglionic sympathetic neurons?

Norepinephrine

48
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What is the origin of sympathetic preganglionic neurons? A. Craniosacral B. Thoracolumbar C. Lumbosacral D. Cervicothoracic

Thoracolumbar

49
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Which of the following always releases acetylcholine? A. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons B. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons C. Preganglionic neurons (sympathetic and parasympathetic) D. Adrenergic neurons

Preganglionic neurons All preganglionic ANS neurons release ACh.

50
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True or False Tendons and ligaments have poor vascularity, which delays healing.

true

51
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Which protein acts as a scaffold and binds collagen and proteoglycans during tissue healing?

fibronectin

52
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describe metaplasia and dysplasia

Metaplasia: Change in cell type. Dysplasia: Abnormal growth and morphology.

53
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What are reactive oxygen species (ROS)?

Free radicals formed during oxidative stress that damage DNA, proteins, and lipids.

54
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What are the two outcomes of cell injury?

Reversible: Mild/transient stress; cell recovers. Irreversible: Severe/prolonged stress; leads to cell death (necrosis/apoptosis).

55
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How do sodium channels behave during an action potential?

At rest: Activation gate closed, inactivation gate open. During depolarization: Activation gate opens. At peak: Inactivation gate closes. During repolarization: Channel resets.

56
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What triggers the upstroke of an action potential?

Inward sodium current due to voltage-gated Na⁺ channels opening upon depolarization.

57
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Which ion has the greatest conductance at rest?

Potassium (K⁺) – its channels are fully open, making the membrane more permeable to K⁺.

58
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What are the key features of an action potential?

Size and shape: Consistent in a given cell; same peak and return to resting potential. Propagation: Depolarization spreads to neighboring cells, triggering sequential activation. All-or-none: Only occurs if membrane potential reaches threshold; otherwise, nothing happens.

59
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What role does membrane permeability play in establishing diffusion potential?

Greater permeability to an ion = greater influence on the membrane potential it creates.

60
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Define diffusion potential and equilibrium potential and explain the conditions under which each occurs.

Diffusion potential: Created when ions move down their gradient, causing a voltage. Equilibrium potential: Occurs when electrical force balances chemical gradient — no net ion movement.

61
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Compare osmolarity and osmolality.

Osmolarity: Osmoles per liter of solution Osmolality: Osmoles per kilogram of solvent

62
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what factors does osmotic pressure depend on?

Osmotic pressure depends on the concentration of solutes, membrane permeability, and whether solutes can cross the membrane.

63
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What role do carbohydrates play on the cell membrane surface?

Carbohydrates (glycoproteins, glycolipids) protrude from the membrane and are important for cell recognition and signaling.

64
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Q12: What are the main types of proteins found in the cell membrane and their functions?

Integral proteins: Span the membrane; involved in transport and signaling. Peripheral proteins: Attached to membrane surface; provide support and signaling roles.

65
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Describe the amphipathic nature of phospholipids and how this contributes to the formation of the cell membrane bilayer.

Phospholipids are amphipathic — hydrophilic heads face outward, and hydrophobic tails face inward, forming a bilayer.

66
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What components make up the protoplasm, and what percentage of the cell does water comprise?

Protoplasm includes water (70–85%), ions, proteins (10–20%), lipids, and carbohydrates.

67
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Which organelle is responsible for packaging and modifying proteins and how is it structurally organized?

Golgi apparatus is a stack of flat vesicles that modifies, packages, and transports proteins and lipids. It receives vesicles from the ER.

68
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explain the difference between rough and smooth ER

Rough ER: Has ribosomes; synthesizes and processes proteins. Smooth ER: No ribosomes; synthesizes lipids and detoxifies substances

69
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the uptake of a novel drug occurs down an electrochemical gradient. the rate of the uptake is not saturated at high extracellular drug concentrations. what transport is it

simple diffusion

70
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in cell membranes to create the lipid bi-layer the phospholipids explain the orientation

These molecules have a polar head (hydrophilic) and nonpolar tails (hydrophobic), allowing them to arrange themselves into a stable bilayer in an aqueous environment. it serves as a barrier separating the inside of the cell vs the outside.

71
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The process of making the membrane potential less negative is called

Depolarization

72
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Potential difference generated across a membrane when a charged solute (an ion) diffuses down its concentration gradient is called

Diffusion potential

73
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Which of the following transport mechanisms requires a protein carrier?

Primary active transport, secondary active transport, and facilitated diffusion

74
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The most abundant cell membrane lipids are

phospholipids

75
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Explain all or none response

Action potential generated only if membrane potential reaches threshold Below threshold → no action potential

76
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Describe the inward vs. Outward current

Inward Current Positive charge enters the cell Outward Current Positive charge exits the cell

77
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Explain the difference between passive (downhill) and active (uphill)

Passive (Downhill): No metabolic energy required. Movement down the electrochemical gradient. Includes: Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion. Active (Uphill): Requires energy. Movement against the electrochemical gradient. Includes: Primary and secondary active transport.

78
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icf and ecf is how much of the total body water

icf is 2/3 ecf 1/3

79
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write down the correct sequence for the generation of action potential

Resting Potential: The Na⁺/K⁺ pump moves 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, keeping the inside negative (-70 mV).

Threshold: A stimulus depolarizes the membrane to ~ -55 mV, triggering the opening of Na⁺ channels.

Depolarization: Na⁺ channels open, and Na⁺ floods into the cell, making the inside positive (~ +30 mV).

Repolarization: Na⁺ channels close, K⁺ channels open, and K⁺ exits the cell, lowering the membrane potential.

Hyperpolarization: Extra K⁺ leaves as channels stay open briefly, causing the membrane to dip below resting (~ -80 mV).

Return to Resting: The Na⁺/K⁺ pump restores balance by pumping 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, returning to ~ -70 mV.

80
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At rest, the conductance or permeability for _____ is high and the conductance or permeability for ____ is low

K+ and Na+

81
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Which type of diffusion requires energy?

Active (primary - direct ATP hydrolysis and secondary - indirect )

82
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Name which descriptors are uphill and which are downhill

Downhill: simple & facilitated diffusion aka passive Uphill is primary and secondary aka active

83
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The total solute concentration (osmolarity) in ICF is ____ to ECF

equal

84
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Which has a lower pH? ICF or ECF.

Which is more acidic ICF or ECF?

icf, icf

85
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The major cation in ICF is

potassium (K+)

86
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The major cation in ECF is _____

sodium (NA+)

87
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define hyperplasia vs hypertrophy

hyperplasia is the increase in number of cells which increases size while hypertrophy is increase in size

88
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define preload

Preload is the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle fibers at the end of diastole, just before contraction.

89
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factors that affect CO, SV, preload

Cardiac output equals HR x SV.

HR: increased HR, increased CO

SV: increased SV, increased CO.

Venous return: increase in venous return, increases preload

Stroke Volume (SV) - the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat.

Preload: increased preload (ventricular filling) increases stroke volume according to the Frank-Starling law.

Contractility: greater contractility increases stroke volume, often influenced by sympathetic stimulation.

Afterload: increased afterload (the resistance the heart must pump against) decreases stroke volume.

Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle fibers at the end of diastole (ventricular filling).

Factors affecting preload include:

Venous return: increased venous return raises preload.

Blood volume: higher blood volume increases preload.

Atrial contraction: stronger atrial contraction increases preload.

Heart rate: very fast heart rates reduce preload due to less filling time.

Ventricular compliance: stiff ventricles reduce preload because they stretch less.

90
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latent firing rates of sa node, av node, bundle of his, purkinje fibers

sa node 70-80

av node 40-60

bundle of his 40

purkinje fibers 15-20

91
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what factors affect velocity, resistance, and reynolds number

Velocity of Blood Flow (v)

Formula: v = Q / A
(Q = blood flow, A = cross-sectional area)

Factors affecting velocity:

Increased blood flow (Q) → increased velocity

Increased cross-sectional area (A) → decreased velocity
→ Capillaries have the lowest velocity due to large total area

Resistance to Blood Flow (R)

Formula (Poiseuille’s Law): R = (8 × η × L) / (π × r⁴)
(η = viscosity, L = vessel length, r = radius)

Factors affecting resistance:

↓ Radius → ↑ Resistance (most powerful factor)

↑ Viscosity (e.g., thicker blood) → ↑ Resistance

↑ Length of vessel → ↑ Resistance

Reynolds Number (Re)

Formula: Re = (ρ × v × D) / η
(ρ = density, v = velocity, D = diameter, η = viscosity)

Factors affecting Reynolds number:

↑ Velocity → ↑ Re

↑ Diameter → ↑ Re

↓ Viscosity → ↑ Re (e.g., in anemia)

↑ Density → ↑ Re (less commonly changes)

→ Turbulent flow likely when Re > 2000

92
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aorta, arterioles, capillaries, veins.

smallest to largest in terms of

a. cross sectional area

b. velocity of blood flow

c. compliance

d. pressures

a. cross sectional area - aorta; arterioles; veins, capillaries (large number of vessels)

b. velocity of blood flow - capillaries; veins; arterioles; aorta

c. compliance - arteries; vein

d. pressures - Veins, Capillaries, Arterioles, Aorta

93
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what are the differences between the sympathetic system and parasympathetic system

  • primary function

  • origin of preganglionic neurons

  • location of autonomic ganglia

  • length of preganglionic axons

  • length of postganglionic axons

  • effector organs

  • neurotransmitter in ganglion

  • neurotransmitter in effector organ

  • receptor in ganglion

  • receptor in effector organ

  • effect on SA node

  • effect on AV nodal conductor

  • effect on cardiac contractility

  • effect on bronchioles

Primary Function:

Sympathetic: Activates "fight or flight" responses — increases heart rate, redirects blood to muscles, dilates pupils, etc.

Parasympathetic: Promotes "rest and digest" activities — slows heart rate, enhances digestion, conserves energy.

Origin of Preganglionic Neurons:

Sympathetic: Thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord (T1–L3).

Parasympathetic: Craniosacral region — brainstem (cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10) and sacral spinal cord (S2–S4).

Location of Autonomic Ganglia:

Sympathetic: Close to the spinal cord in the sympathetic chain (prevertebral and paravertebral ganglia).

Parasympathetic: Near or in the target effector organs.

Length of Preganglionic Axons:

Sympathetic: Short.

Parasympathetic: Long.

Length of Postganglionic Axons:

Sympathetic: Long.

Parasympathetic: Short.

Effector Organs:

Sympathetic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Parasympathetic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Neurotransmitter in Ganglion:

Both systems: Acetylcholine (ACh).

Neurotransmitter in Effector Organ:

Sympathetic: Mostly norepinephrine (NE) except in sweat

Parasympathetic: Acetylcholine (ACh).

Receptor in Ganglion:

Both systems: Nicotinic receptors (Nn subtype).

Receptor in Effector Organ:

Sympathetic: Adrenergic receptors (α and β).

Parasympathetic: Muscarinic receptors.

Effect on SA Node:

Sympathetic: Increases heart rate.

Parasympathetic: Decreases heart rate.

Effect on AV Nodal Conduction:

Sympathetic: Increases conduction speed.

Parasympathetic: decreases conduction.

Effect on Cardiac Contractility:

Sympathetic: Increases force of contraction.

Parasympathetic: Minimal or slight decrease.

Effect on Bronchioles:

Sympathetic: Causes bronchodilation (opens airways).

Parasympathetic: Causes bronchoconstriction (narrows airways).

94
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3 criteria for NSR (normal sinus rhythm) are

  1. sa nodal impulses aka heart beat must be 60-100

  2. the action potential must originate in SA node

  3. the activation of the myocardium must occur in the correct sequence, timing, and delays

95
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explain where the pulse is generated and its path


SA node

AV

bundle of his

purkinje fibers

96
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  • pressure after blood has been ejected from the left ventricle during systole

  • pressure during ventricular relaxation

  • difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

  • average pressure in a complete cardiac cycle

  • systolic pressure

  • diastole pressure

  • pulse pressure

  • arterial pressure

97
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murmurs are associated with _______

As viscosity decreases, Reynolds number ________

As velocity increases, Reynolds number _________

turbulent

increases

increases

98
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what are the differences between the sympathetic system and parasympathetic system

  • primary function

  • origin of preganglionic neurons

  • location of autonomic ganglia

  • length of preganglionic axons

  • length of postganglionic axons

  • effector organs

  • neurotransmitter in ganglion

  • neurotransmitter in effector organ

  • receptor in ganglion

  • receptor in effector organ

  • effect on SA node

  • effect on AV nodal conductor

  • effect on cardiac contractility

  • effect on bronchioles

Primary Function:

Sympathetic: Activates "fight or flight" responses — increases heart rate, redirects blood to muscles, dilates pupils, etc.

Parasympathetic: Promotes "rest and digest" activities — slows heart rate, enhances digestion, conserves energy.

Origin of Preganglionic Neurons:

Sympathetic: Thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord (T1–L3).

Parasympathetic: Craniosacral region — brainstem (cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10) and sacral spinal cord (S2–S4).

Location of Autonomic Ganglia:

Sympathetic: Close to the spinal cord in the sympathetic chain (prevertebral and paravertebral ganglia).

Parasympathetic: Near or in the target effector organs.

Length of Preganglionic Axons:

Sympathetic: Short.

Parasympathetic: Long.

Length of Postganglionic Axons:

Sympathetic: Long.

Parasympathetic: Short.

Effector Organs:

Sympathetic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Parasympathetic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Neurotransmitter in Ganglion:

Both systems: Acetylcholine (ACh).

Neurotransmitter in Effector Organ:

Sympathetic: Mostly norepinephrine (NE) except in sweat

Parasympathetic: Acetylcholine (ACh).

Receptor in Ganglion:

Both systems: Nicotinic receptors (Nn subtype).

Receptor in Effector Organ:

Sympathetic: Adrenergic receptors (α and β).

Parasympathetic: Muscarinic receptors.

Effect on SA Node:

Sympathetic: Increases heart rate.

Parasympathetic: Decreases heart rate.

Effect on AV Nodal Conduction:

Sympathetic: Increases conduction speed.

Parasympathetic: decreases conduction.

Effect on Cardiac Contractility:

Sympathetic: Increases force of contraction.

Parasympathetic: Minimal or slight decrease.

Effect on Bronchioles:

Sympathetic: Causes bronchodilation (opens airways).

Parasympathetic: Causes bronchoconstriction (narrows airways).

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by definition edema occurs when there is _______ filtration and volume of interstitial fluid ________ the ability of the lymphatics to return it to the circulating _________

increased; exceeds; blood

100
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when a person moves quickly from a lying position to standing position decrease?

venous return, cardiac output, artiel pressure

all lower