Introduction to Computer Networks - Key Concepts

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100 question-and-answer flashcards covering fundamental terms, devices, protocols, models, addressing, cabling, topologies, and standards from the lecture notes on Introduction to Computer Networks.

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105 Terms

1
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What is a computer network?

A group of computers and other devices connected by transmission media to share resources and information.

2
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Name two major advantages of using a network over stand-alone computing.

Resource sharing (devices & data) and centralised management/administration.

3
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Which two fundamental network models define how computers share resources?

Peer-to-Peer and Client/Server models.

4
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In a peer-to-peer network, how is authority distributed?

No computer has more authority than another; each controls its own resources.

5
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Give one disadvantage of scaling a large peer-to-peer network.

Difficult to locate and manage resources as the number of computers grows.

6
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What device in a client/server network stores shared data and services?

A server.

7
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List three advantages that client/server networks have over peer-to-peer networks.

Centralised user accounts, easier management/security, and higher scalability/performance.

8
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Define an ‘end device’ and give two examples.

A host that sends or receives data on a network, e.g., laptop, VoIP phone.

9
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What is an ‘intermediary device’?

A device that connects end devices or networks, e.g., switch, router, firewall.

10
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What is meant by ‘network service’?

Software that responds to requests for information (e.g., email hosting, web hosting).

11
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Give four common network service categories.

File/Print, Communications, Mail, Internet, and Management services.

12
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What does LAN stand for, and what is its typical scope?

Local Area Network; confined to a room, building, or campus.

13
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Define WAN.

Wide Area Network; connects geographically distant LANs, often across cities or countries.

14
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What is a MAN (or CAN)?

Metropolitan (or Campus) Area Network; links multiple LANs within the same city or campus.

15
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What IEEE standard family defines Wi-Fi networks?

IEEE 802.11.

16
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Which IEEE standard covers Ethernet?

IEEE 802.3.

17
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What is the smallest network category and what does it connect?

PAN (Personal Area Network); connects personal devices around one person.

18
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Which OSI layer is responsible for physical signal transmission?

Layer 1 – Physical layer.

19
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At which OSI layer are MAC addresses used?

Layer 2 – Data Link layer.

20
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Which OSI layer chooses the best path for packets?

Layer 3 – Network layer.

21
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Name the two main Transport-layer protocols and state whether each is connection-oriented or connectionless.

TCP – connection-oriented and reliable; UDP – connectionless and best-effort.

22
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Which OSI layer handles encryption and translation of data formats?

Layer 6 – Presentation layer.

23
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What is encapsulation in networking?

Adding headers/trailers to data as it moves down the OSI layers to form a PDU.

24
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What organisation developed the OSI model?

ISO – International Organization for Standardization.

25
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Which body assigns global IP address blocks?

IANA – Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (under ICANN).

26
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What is the purpose of ANSI?

Coordinates and publishes U.S. technology standards and represents the U.S. at ISO.

27
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Which professional society maintains the IEEE 802 standards?

IEEE – Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers.

28
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What wiring standard defines commercial cabling categories such as Cat5e and Cat6?

TIA/EIA-568.

29
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Give two differences between Cat5e and Cat6 cables.

Cat6 supports up to 10 Gbps and has tighter twists/insulation; Cat5e supports up to 1 Gbps.

30
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What is attenuation?

Loss of signal strength as it travels through a medium.

31
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Define crosstalk.

Interference caused when a signal on one wire induces signal on an adjacent wire.

32
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What device regenerates digital signals to combat attenuation?

Repeater.

33
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Which duplex mode allows simultaneous two-way data flow?

Full-duplex.

34
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What is the maximum cable length for a 100 m Cat5e Ethernet segment before a repeater is required?

100 metres (approx. 328 ft).

35
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Name two advantages of fibre-optic cabling over copper.

Higher bandwidth and immunity to electromagnetic interference.

36
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What does MAC in MAC address stand for?

Media Access Control.

37
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How many bits are there in an IPv4 address?

32 bits.

38
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What private IPv4 address range is reserved for Class A?

10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255 (/8).

39
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What protocol automatically leases IP addresses to hosts?

DHCP – Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.

40
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Which four messages complete a typical DHCPv4 lease process?

DISCOVER, OFFER, REQUEST, ACKNOWLEDGE.

41
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What record type in DNS maps a host name to an IPv4 address?

A record.

42
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What is the hierarchical top-level DNS domain used for U.S. government sites?

.gov

43
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Which TCP/IP port number is used by HTTPS?

443.

44
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Which utility sends ICMP Echo Request messages to test reachability?

PING.

45
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What is CSMA/CD and where is it used?

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection; legacy Ethernet access method on half-duplex shared media.

46
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Define MTU.

Maximum Transmission Unit – largest packet size a network layer can transmit without fragmentation.

47
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How many bytes are in the data field of a standard Ethernet frame (minimum and maximum)?

Minimum 46 bytes, maximum 1500 bytes.

48
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What field in an Ethernet II frame stores error-checking information?

FCS – Frame Check Sequence.

49
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Name the internal database a switch uses to map MAC addresses to port numbers.

MAC Address Table (MAT) or CAM table.

50
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What is the primary difference between a hub and a switch?

Hub repeats bits to all ports; switch forwards frames only to the destination port based on MAC address.

51
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Which device operates at OSI Layer 3 and makes forwarding decisions using IP addresses?

Router.

52
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What is a default gateway?

The router interface that a host uses to reach networks outside its local subnet.

53
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What WAN topology connects every site to every other site directly?

Full-mesh topology.

54
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Name two digital subscriber line technologies.

ADSL and VDSL (any DSL accepted).

55
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What does SONET stand for?

Synchronous Optical Network.

56
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Which WAN technology uses short labels instead of long network addresses for faster forwarding?

MPLS – Multiprotocol Label Switching.

57
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What OSI layer is primarily concerned with flow control and segmentation?

Layer 4 – Transport layer.

58
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Give two common Application-layer protocols and their default ports.

HTTP – port 80, SMTP – port 25 (other valid pairs accepted).

59
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What is a socket in TCP/IP terminology?

Combination of an IP address and a port number identifying a specific process on a host.

60
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Explain ‘broadcast’ traffic in IPv4.

Traffic sent from one host to all hosts on the local network (destination 255.255.255.255 or subnet broadcast).

61
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What is the main purpose of NAT on a router?

Translate private internal IP addresses to a public address for Internet access.

62
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Which layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to the OSI Physical and Data Link layers combined?

Network Access layer (or Link layer).

63
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State one key similarity between the OSI and TCP/IP models.

Both divide network communication into layered functions to promote interoperability and standardisation.

64
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What is the range of ‘well-known’ TCP/UDP ports?

0–1023.

65
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Which command in Windows displays current IP configuration?

ipconfig (or ipconfig /all).

66
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What kind of address does IPv6 link-local use?

FE80::/10 prefix addresses used only on the local segment.

67
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What IPv6 address type delivers packets to the nearest of several possible hosts?

Anycast address.

68
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Describe the main function of the Presentation layer in three words.

Format, Compress, Encrypt.

69
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Which three layers of the OSI model are often grouped together in actual software (e.g., within an OS)?

Application, Presentation, and Session layers.

70
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What does SSL/TLS provide for web traffic?

Encryption and secure session establishment.

71
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Name two common errors detected by the Data Link layer.

Bit errors (via CRC/FCS) and frame collisions.

72
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What is the purpose of the ‘Time to Live’ (TTL) field in an IPv4 header?

Limits the packet’s lifespan by decrementing at each hop to prevent infinite looping.

73
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Which type of cable has a central copper core, dielectric insulator, and braided shield?

Coaxial cable.

74
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Give one historical Ethernet variant that used coaxial cable.

10Base-2 (Thin Ethernet) or 10Base-5 (Thick Ethernet).

75
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What is signal ‘noise’?

Any undesirable interference that distorts or degrades the transmitted signal.

76
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Explain ‘full-duplex’ in the context of Ethernet switches.

Both devices can transmit and receive simultaneously on separate transmit and receive pairs.

77
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What does VPN stand for and what problem does it solve?

Virtual Private Network; provides secure tunnelling over untrusted networks such as the Internet.

78
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List four fields present in an IPv4 packet header.

Version, Source IP, Destination IP, TTL (others valid: Protocol, Header Checksum, etc.).

79
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Which protocol translates hostnames to IP addresses?

DNS – Domain Name System.

80
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What term describes the unique numerical identifier for every node on a network?

Address (network or MAC/IP depending on layer context).

81
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Define ‘segment’ in networking.

A portion of a network where devices share the same physical medium and collision domain (or subdivision by routers).

82
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What network backbone type has all inter-switch links collapse into a single core device?

Collapsed backbone.

83
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In WAN design, what is the ‘local loop’?

The last-mile connection between customer premises and a telecom provider’s central office.

84
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Which DSL variant provides higher downstream than upstream bandwidth?

ADSL – Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line.

85
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How many host bits are available in a /24 IPv4 subnet?

8 bits (256 addresses minus network/broadcast).

86
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True or False: UDP guarantees packet order.

False – UDP is unordered and unreliable.

87
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What device combines the functions of a switch and router for home networks?

Home gateway or combo router/switch (often called a home router).

88
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Which Ethernet media access method is used in modern switched networks?

None – switches use dedicated collision-free links; CSMA/CD is effectively disabled.

89
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What command-line tool traces the path packets take to a destination?

tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux/macOS).

90
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Name two common connectors used with coaxial cable.

BNC and F-type connectors.

91
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Which transport-layer protocol does DNS primarily use for queries?

UDP (port 53); TCP is used for zone transfers.

92
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What is the default subnet mask for a Class B IPv4 network?

255.255.0.0 (/16).

93
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Describe ‘flow control’ in data communication.

Techniques to prevent a faster sender from overwhelming a slower receiver (e.g., TCP windowing).

94
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What is the main purpose of the Session layer?

Establish, manage, and terminate sessions between applications.

95
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Which OSI layer is responsible for physical addressing?

Layer 2 – Data Link layer.

96
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Give one reason fibre installs are more expensive than copper.

Requires specialised tools and expertise for splicing/termination.

97
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What type of Ethernet cable is needed for 10GBASE-SR connections?

Multimode fibre (e.g., OM3/OM4).

98
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What protocol is used to securely transfer files and replaces insecure FTP?

SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) or FTPS.

99
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Define ‘bandwidth’ in networking terms.

The maximum capacity of a medium to carry data, often measured in bits per second.

100
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What IEEE specification covers Bluetooth PANs?

IEEE 802.15.