Tamu Bio 112 Final Exam Review

Lysosomes are organelles that are filled with hydrolytic enzymes. From among these choices, you would expect that lysosomes would play the most prominent and important role in

A. Dinoflagellates

B. Tubulinids

C. Chlorophytes

D. Diatoms

E. Spirochetes

B

Which of the following statements is correct regarding genomes of prokaryotes?

A. Some kinds of prokaryotic chromosomes are called plasmids.

B. Prokaryotes are diploid organisms, except for gametes.

C. Prokaryotic cells may have multiple chromosomes.

D. All prokaryotic genomic DNA is circular.

E. The amount of dense and compact DNA in a prokaryote nucleoid is almost equal to a typical eukaryotic cell's DNA.

D.

Among the prokaryotes, motility

A. is produced only by the bacterial flagella

B. May involve actin microfilaments and myosin motor proteins

C. is negative taxis if the cell avoids a stimulus.

D. is rarely found and of little adaptive importance.

E. ALL of the above.

C.

A single bacterial cell, isolated from all other bacteria, can produce descendant cells with diverse phenotypes through the process of

A. transduction

B. transformation

C. crossing over

D. DNA mutation

E. sexual recombination

D.

Walking on the beach along the California coastline, you discover a large specimen of kelp (Laminaria) washed up on the shore. Which of the following would NOT be true about this example of brown algae?

A. the blades are edible

B. the blades of the thallus may bear sporangia

C. It is usually called a seaweed

D. Its sexual life cycle exhibits alternation of generations

E. the specimen is a gametophyte

E.

One phylum of plants has vascular tissue but does not have megaphylls and never produces pollen or seeds. In the ancient past, some species grew to tree-size but today all species are small and resemble true mosses. This phylum is

A. monilophyta

B. Ginkgophyta

C. Cycadoophyta

D. Gnetophyta

E. Lycophyta

E

Which of these terms is LEAST LIKELY to apply to bacteria deep with in a compost pile of fruit and vegetable waste?

A. carbon fixation

B. facultative anaerobe

C. Chemoheterotroph

D. absorptive

E. Decomposer

A.

In the moss life cycle, meiosis occurs in the _______________ to produce ______________.

a. sporangium, haploid spores

B. archegonium, diploid spores

C. Antheridium, haploid sperm

D. spores, more haploid spores

E. Archegonium, haploid spores

A.

Many protists rely on cytoplasmic streaming to move cellular contents in bulk now. This flow is largely created by

A. basal bodies

B. Cilia

C. microfilaments and actin motor proteins

D. microtubules and dynein motor proteins

E. Vesicles

C.

The diplomonads and the parabasalids are both

A. nitrogen-fixing symbionts

B. prokaryotes

C. photoautotrophic

D. colonial forms

E. lacking functional mitchondria

E

Which of the following protist groups does NOT include photoautotorphs?

A. ciliates

B. chlorophytes

C. Euglenozoans

D. Diatoms

E. Brown algae

A

The most significant human economic impact of the red algae is

A. as a harmful pathogen affecting human crops

B. as a toxic fish killing red tide

C. as a model organism for basic cell research

D. as a food and food-additive source

E. as a source of medicinal products

D.

The cellular slime molds are fascinating because, unlike any of the other groups of protists we studied,

A. they feed by cooperative phagocytosis

B. they are found in both terrestrial and aquatic habitats

C. materials move freely within a large multinuclear body

D. independent unicellular organisms aggregate to form multicellular reproductive structures

E. they lose and re-gain certain organelles during different parts of the life cycle

D.

Select the CORRECT MATCH of the term and definition:

A. exotoxin--a chemical produced and secreted by bacteria that causes harm to the host

B. endoparasite-- a cell in a dormant condition that is resistant to drought and heat

C. bioremediation-- curing a harmful bacterial infection by introducing beneficial bacterial strains

D. Pathogens-- any mutualistic organism that is smaller than its host

E. commensalism-- a symbiotic relationship in which both species involved are causing continuous mutual harm

A.

Which of these are you LEAST likely to find in a liverwort?

A. xylem

B. thin flat thallus

C. haploid spores

D. rhizoids

E. Antheridium

A

Select the CORRECT match of the group and structure found in members of the group:

A. slime molds--threadlike pseudopodia

B. Foraminifera--silica walls

C. Dinoflagellates-- two flagella in perpendicular grooves

D. Diatoms--- pellicle

E. Euglenozoan--- chloroplasts with phycoerythrin pigments

C

Horizontal gene transfer may include all of the following EXCEPT

A. from a prokaryotic cell to a eukaryotic cell

B. from a bacteria to a daughter bacteria cell

C. From a bacteria cell to an archaean cell

D. From one bacteria cell to a bacteria cell of a diff. species

E. ALL of the above are included in horizontal gene transfer

B.

All of the following describe cells that are capable of being donor cells in the process of bacterial conjugation except

A. cell with F plasmid

B. F+ cell

C. cell that was the recipient cell in Hfr cell conjugation

D. cell that was the recipient cell in F- conjugation

E. Hfr cell

C

Cells in Domain Eukarya have this in common with cells in Domain Archaea:

A. presence of branched hydrocarbons in lipids of plasma membranes

B. absence of histone proteins

C. presence of linear chromosomes

D. absence of peptidoglycan

E. presence of nuclear envelope

D.

A thick peptidcoglycan wall in a plasma membrane represents

A. many fimbriae embedded in the bacterial cell wall

B. the cell wall of a gram-positive bacterium

C. the cell wall of a gram-negative bacterium

D. the cell wall and capsule of a bacterium

E. tiny eggs being released from the bacterial cytoplasm

B

Cyanobacteria are well known for all of the following EXCEPT

A. doing nitrogen fixation

B. generating oxygen

C. producing toxic chemicals

D. acting as decomposers

E. being primary producers

D.

A unicellular haploid protist may go through generations of asexual reproduction before it goes into a sexual cycle. What process forms gametes in such protists?

A. Budding

B. Conjugation

C. Meiosis

D. Mitosis

E. Fertilization

D.

Which of these statements is NOT TRUE about the parasite Plasmodium that causes malaria?

A. it is a member of the Apicomplexans

B. it reproduces asexually within host blood cells

C. it requires two hosts to fully complete its life cycle

D. it goes through sexual reproduction outside the human host

E. it is acquired when an insect bite injects newly formed zygotes into the human host

E.

Which of these is a shared derived characteristic of the Charophytes and plantae?

A. presence of sporopollenin

B. multicellular growth

C. alternation of generations

D. apical meristems

E. cell walls with cellulose

A.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a spherical bacterium that thrives in humans by absorbing moisture and organic materials from cells lining the reproductive tract. Oxygen must be present for it to survive. It causes the disease gonorrhea due to irritation and inflammation of these tissues. When tested with Gram stain technique, cells appear pink. Based on this description, which of the following terms does NOT apply to this organism?

A. Gram positive coccus

B. Absorptive chemheterotroph

C. symbiotic

D. aerobic

E. pathogen

A.

The capsule in prokaryotes

A. is need for sexual reproduction

B. can help cells stick to other cells

C. makes them resistant to high temperatures

D. is part of the cell wall

E. ALL of the above

B

Which adaptation of the first plants greatly increased the number of potential offspring in the next generation on land?

A. multicellular sporophyte

B. flagellated sperm

C. meristem

D. cuticle

E. archegonium

A.

In bacterial transduction,

A. new phage protein capsules occasionally package up bacterial DNA.

B. the DNA within a phage is transferred into a living bacterial cell

C. bacteriophage particles attach to the surface of bacterial cells

D. bacteriophage infection causes the degradation of the bacterial chromosome

E. ALL of the above.

E.

Which of he following is an INCORRECT match of eukaryotic cell structure and its origin, according to the leading hypotheses?

A. mitochondrion-- ingestion of aerobic chemoheterotrophic bacterium

B. Nuclear envelope- infolding of plasma membrane

C. chloroplasts in chlorophytes and red algae--- ingestion of cyanobacterium

D. Chloroplasts in dinoflagellates and brown algae--ingestion of photoautotrophic eukaryote

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT

E.

All of the following adaptations of plants are directly related to avoiding desiccation in a dry land environment except

A. waxy cuticle

B. multicelluar gametangium

C. walled spores

D. secondary compounds

E. mycorrhizae

D.

You are looking through a microscope at thin green filamentous strands collected from a stream. You see that the filaments are chains of walled cells connected end-to-end with bright green chloroplasts clearly visible. All of the cells of the strands look the same. This specimen is most likely

A. brown algae

B. a bryophyte

C. a diatom

D. a euglenozoan

D. a chlorophyte

E.

Which process effectively eliminates the need for water in sexual reproduction of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms?

A. dispersal

B. meristematic growth

C. germination

D. pollination

E. dormancy

D.

Place the appearance of these adaptations in the history of plants in their proper sequence (from earliest to most recent in geologic history):

1. seeds

2. tracheid cells (xylem)

3. sporopollenin-coated spores

4. megaphylls

A. 2,4,3,1

B. 2,1,3,4

C. 2,3,4,1

D. 3,2,4,1

E. 3,2,1,4

D.

According to the fossil record, plants with _________ evolved before plants with __________________.

A. seeds, spores

B. vascular tissue, seeds

C. lignin, a cuticle

D. flowers, pollen

E. roots, gametangia

B

Members of a large metabollically diverse group of bacteria all have a second lipid bilayer surrounding the cell. They include many bacteria involved in Nitrogen cycle processes and are typically rods or spheres. The intestinal pathogens Salmonella, E. coli, and vibrio chlolerae are members of this group, which is the

A. cyanbacteria

B. chlamydias

C. Spirochetes

D. Gram positive bacteria

E. proteobacteria

E

Select the CORRECT match of example/description and the protist group.

A. trypanosoma parasite that causes sleeping sickness--Euglenozoan

B. Entamoeba histolytica that causes amoebic dysentery--tubulinid

C. plasmodium parasite that causes malaria---radiolarian

D. Giardia intestinal parasite with two haploid nuclei--dinoflagellate

E. ALL of the above are correct.

A.

In the ferns and horsetails, dispersal to new locations occurs through

A. air-borne spores

B. motile larvae

C. air borne pollen

D. seeds

E. water-borne sperm

A.

All of the following are parts of the ovule at some point in time EXCEPT

A. the male gametophyte

B. a megaspore

C. an egg

D. integument

E. a megasporangium

A.

Which of these is NOT a source of evidence in support of the Theory of Evolution?

A. Mendelian genetics

B. existence of vestigial structures

C. transitional fossils

D. endemic island species

E. similarity of DNA sequences of animals

A.

Large populations of Greater Prairie Chickens in Illinois were wiped out by habitat destruction. The remaining populations today have dramatically reduced genetic diversity and poorer hatching success compared to the past. This is attributed to

A. natural selection

B. gene flow

C. a bottleneck effect

D. a founder effect

E. random mutations

C.

Males of one frog species occasionally attempt to mate with females of another frog species. Even though the males successfully clasp the females and release sperm around the freshly deposited eggs, fertilization never occurs. This type of reproductive barrier is

A. gametic isolation

B. behavioral isolation

C. temporal isolation

D. habitat isolation

E. mechanical isolation

A.

If a population is in Hardy weinberg equilibrium then

A. there is no microevolution

B. the fitness of phenotypes will vary up and down but average out over time

C. the dominant phenotype is the more successful phenotype

D. there is no variation in phenotypes

E. ALL of the above

A.

A researcher may decide that a taxon is actually polyphyletic if

A. two species of the taxon descended from diff. ancestors

B. it includes all of the descendants of a common ancestor

C. they have selected a tree that is not as "parsimonious" as another tree

D. the species in the taxon do not share synapomorphies

E. they discover that another related species is not now included in the taxon.

A.

Which of the following is an example of what might happen when there is a mutation of a homeotic gene?

A. a cat grows twice the size of its parents

B. a baby chimp keeps its round forehead and small jaws as it becomes sexually mature

C. Hairs elongate and become stiffer and very sharp

D. A tooth grows to an enormous size and becomes a tusk

E. A certain body part, such as a leg, develops in a location of the body where it previously was not found

E.

Select the CORRECT match of scholar and his contribution:

A. Malthus-- fossils are record of catastrophic events of the past

B. Cuvier--- competition for resources brings sickness and death of the most vulnerable

C. Linnaeus-- life adapted by acquiring useful features and passing them on to offspring

D. Aristotle--- nested classification system based on common characteristics

E. Lyell--- steady, continuous geologic processes produce major geologic features

E.

The presence of a great diversity of finches on the Galapagos islands is explained by

A. sympatric speciation

B. continental drift

C. adaptive radiation

D. mass extinction

E. exaptation

C

Plants scientists explain that the earliest land plants produced chemicals called flavonoids that helped protect their cells from UV light damage. Later plants produced more toxic versions of these chemicals, which now protect many plants from being eaten by insects. The insect- fighting chemicals, therefore, evolved through the process of

A. homeosis

B. paedomorphosis

C. exaptation

D. adaptive radiation

E. heterochrony

C.

Arrange these events in Earth's history in chronological sequence:

1. extinction of dinosaurs

2. first eukaryotes

3. first plants

4. oxygen revolution

5. first photosynthetic cells

A. 5,4,2,3,1

B. 2,3,5,4,1

C. 3,4,5,2,1

D. 2,5,3,4,1

E. 4,5,3,1,2

A.

In Darwin's theory what was most responsible for bringing about the change in characteristics of a species over time?

A. random mutations

B. extinction

C. the environment

D. migration

E. use or disuse

C.

Alfred Wallace is famous among biologists for

A. proposing a hypothesis of evolution by natural selection independently from Darwin.

B. developing mathematics critical to population genetics

C. connecting the principles of inheritance and cell division

D. writing an essay explaining human overpopulation

E. being batman's butler

A.

A biological species is defined as all of the organisms

A. with compatible reproductive anatomy

B. sharing a common gene pool

C. with similar DNA sequences

D. with identical mating behaviors

E. sharing natural resources

B

The explanation for how a complex eye like that of a squid's could evolve from a simple patch of light receptor cells is that

A. the changes were incremental with each intermediate version of the eye a useful improvement

B. Adult squids retained eye components that are found in larval squids

C. homeotic genes duplicated and mutated to produce a complex form

D. the lens and cornea of the squid eye were modified parts of the squid's brain and mantle

E. the lens components are actually derived from a parasitic organism that lived within the squid host.

A.

In small populations, the random process of sexual reproduction can produce fluctuations in allelic frequency fro generation to generation, sometimes even resulting in the loss of alleles. This is called

A natural selection

B. genetic drift

C. divergence

D. Hardy weinberg equilibrium

E. gene flow

B

Plant species A is 2n=6; species B is 2n=10. These two closely related plant species frequently form sterile hybrids. A new similar species C appears in the same area, and it is clearly derived from either species A or B or both. If species C is an allopolyploid, what possible chromosome number can we expect?

A. 2n=16

B. 2n=22

C. 2n=8

D. n+n= 8

E. 2n=20

A.

The apple maggot fly may be becoming a separate species from the original hawthorn fly. Scientists believe this because the ancestors of the apple maggot fly began to select apples instead of hawthorn fruits as sites for egg-laying. They conclude that this is an example of the process

A. sexual selection

B. geographic isolation

C. autopolyploidy

D. sympatric speciation

E. exaptation

D.

Which of the lists below is in the proper sequence, from MOST inclusive to LEAST inclusive?

A. Class, Order, family

B. phylum, family class

C. Family, order, genus

D. Order Genus family

E. Class phylum order

A.

A bird pollinated a tree in the tropics blooms 5 weeks earlier than a closely related bird pollinated tree in the same rainforest. These species are likely kept genetically separate through

A. gametic isolation

B . mechanical isolation

C. behavioral isolation

D. temporal isolation

E. habitat isolation

D.

Darwin's theory of evolution through means of natural selection required:

A. some of the varying heritable characteristics within a species must affect the ability of individuals to survive and reproduce

B. some of the varying characteristics of a species must be heritable

C. There must be some variation of characteristics within a species

D. Individuals with certain heritable characteristics are consistently better able to survive and reproduce than other individuals in certain environmental conditions

E. ALL of the above

E

Let's say that a radioactive isotope has a half-life of 4 million years. An analysis of a rock containing this material shows that 1/8 of the original parent isotope remains (has not yet decayed). How old is the rock?

A. 16 million years old

B. 4 million years old

C. 8 million years old

D. 12 million years old

E. less than 4 million years old

D

Boa constrictors (a snake), which are thought to have descended from a four-legged reptile, have highly reduced pelvic (hip) bones that do not function in locomotion. These pelvic bones are an example of

A. vestigial structures

B. environmental influence on phenotypic expression

C. homology

D. analogy

E. adaptive radiation

A

During allopatric speciation, what prevents gene flow between the two populations at the beginning of the process?

A. gametes with unmatched chromosomes

B. mechanical isolation

C. a postzygotic barrier

D. a geographic barrier

E. gametic incompatibility

D.

In snapdragons, a gene with incomplete dominance controls flower color such that RR=red, Rr=pink, and rr=white. In a population of 100 plants, there were 65 plants with red flowers, 10 pink flower plants, and 25 plants with white flowers. What is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype in this population?

A. 0.21

B. 0.5

C. 0.42

D. 0.10

E. 0.75

D.

Both Lamarck's ideas and Darwin's theory agreed on this point:

A. only the fittest survive to reproduce

B. acquired characteristics are passed down to offspring

C. evolution leads to adaptation of organisms to their environment

D. Characteristics arise according to the need of the species

E. organisms fall into natural classifications based on their relatedness

C.

Select the TRUE statement:

A. sexual recombination reduces genetic diversity in populations

B. some point mutations can occur in a gene without creating a new allele

C. New alleles arise as beneficial mutations to help species adapt to environmental stress.

D. blended inheritance leads to larger and more complex genomes

E. most phenotypic variation within a population is due to environmental influence

B

The term microevolution is best described as

A. variations in a heritable characteristic within a species

B. the appearance of new species and higher taxa over the history of earth

C. changes that occur only in microscopic populations

D. small changes in the genetic composition of populations

E. point mutations in an individual's DNA

D.

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. For many generations, 49 percent of the animals display a recessive phenotype. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype. What proportion of the population is probably homozygous dominant for this trait?

A. 0.07

B. 0.21

C. 0.42

D. 0.09

E. 0.51

D.

In wild melon plants, the melon flesh color is determined by incomplete dominance at a single locus. (FF red flesh, F'F' yellow flesh and FF' orange flesh). In a population in a hardy weinberg equilibrium, 16% produce melons with yellow flesh. What proportion of the population can we expect to produce orange flesh melons?

A. 24%

B. 60%

C. 84%

D. none (0%)

E. 48%

E.

Haldane and Oparin's "primitive soup" hypothesis suggested that the first chemical components of life were

A. RNA molecules that could catalyze their own replication

B. concentrated in small lipid spheres

C. brought to earth trapped in pores of chondritic meteorites

D. formed from atmospheric gases by lightning and UV energy and condensed in pools on the planet's surface

E. trapped in small pores within the newly formed rocks of oceanic alkaline-water vents

D

Natural selection

A. acts on the phenotype of the entire individual

B. generates a completely new genetic variants

C. produces a perfect adaptation for the environment

D. favors all adaptations equally

E. always reduces diversity within a population

A.

When natural selection is at work, the individuals with higher relative fitness are those who, compared to others in their population,

A. have the better genes for survival in the environment

B. are able to find the healthiest mates

C. are better at competing with others for food

D. are stronger and smarter

E. are leaving more viable offspring to the next generation

E.

If the heterozygous phenotype is more fit than either homozygous phenotype, then variation at this gene locus will be maintained indefinitely in this population as a result of:

A. stabilizing selection

B. heterozygote advantage

C. disruptive selection

D. frequency dependent selection

E. sexual selection

B

In a study we covered in class, a population of fruit flies was separated into two groups, fed two different diets and allowed to naturally reproduce for 40 generations. How did this experiment show evidence of the process of allopatric speciation?

A. flies tended to prefer to mate with flies raised on the same food type.

B. flies in the diff. treatments began to mate a diff time of the day

C. flies preferred to mate with their closest relatives

D. flies survived on one type of food better than the other type of food

E. flies fed on the poorer diet had a higher rate of mutation for digestive enzymes

A.

Dramatic differences in the final adult shape of two closely related species are sometimes accounted for by a single gene mutation that affects the relative rate of growth of body parts. In such cases, the novel form of the new species is a result of

A. adaptive radiation

B. homeotic genes

C. exaptation

D. heterochrony

E. polyploidy

D.

The annelid circulatory system is characterized by

A. vessels containing a fluid that is kept separate from the fluids bathing tissues

B. being restricted to only the anterior segments of the body

C. a muscular heart with two chambers separated by valves

D. a dependence upon the coelom to provide additional circulation of nutrients and gases

E. ALL of the above

A.

In the typical cnidarian life cycle, as illustrated by Obelia,

A. asexual reproduction includes the budding of new polyps

B. polyps are a haploid stage of life

C. haploid eggs and sperm are produced in gonads by mitosis

D. the dispersing larval stage settles on a surface and metamorphoses into a medusa

E. ALL of the above

A.

How does a non-parasitic fungus obtain food?

A. fixes carbon from the air to produce simple sugars

B. absorbs inorganic carbon from soils as raw materials for synthesis of organic molecules

C. secretes digestive enzymes, then absorbs organic monomers across plasma membrane by diffusion or active transport

D. engulf food particles with psedopodia, followed by intracellular digestion

E. ingests dead organic matter into netlike digestive chambers called hyphae

C