IMM3042 - Exam

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720 Terms

1
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What are STH?

soil transmitted helminths

2
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Where are STH usually an issue?

the developing world

3
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At what life stage do STH enter humans?

larval

4
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How due STH enter the body?

through skin & other tissues

5
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Where do adult worm live in the human body?

GIT

6
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What is the morbidity associated with in STH infections? (3)

malnutrition, cognitive impairment, bowel obstruction

7
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Where is schistosomiasis found?

developing world

8
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What is the intermediate host of schistoma?

snail

9
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What are the symptoms of schistomiasis caused by?

immunopathological reactions to egg antigens

10
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What do schistosoma mansoni & japonicum cause?

hepatosplenic & gastrointestinal disease

11
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What does schistosoma haematobium cause?

urinary tract disease

12
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What are 7 important cells in STH infections?

mast cell, eosinophil, M2 macrophage, Th2, B cell, smooth muscle cell, goblet cell

13
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What is the role of the mast cell in STH infections?

Fc receptors crosslink w/ allergen, degranulates cell

14
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What do mast cells release upon degranulation?

histamines, lipid mediators, cytokines

15
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What is the role of the eosinophil in STH infections?

at the blood stage, kill larvae by ADCC & degranulation

16
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What regulates eosinophils?

Il-5

17
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What are the 4 roles of M2 macrophages in STH infections?

tissue repair, fibrosis, immunoregulation & anti-helminth immunity

18
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What promotes the differentiation of M2 macrophages?

Il-4,13

19
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What drives Th2 cell differentiation?

Il-4

20
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What does Th2 secrete?

IL-4,5,9,13

21
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What drives B cell to switch isotype in STH infections? And to switch to which isotype?

Il-4, IgE

22
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What is the role of smooth muscle cells in STH infections?

contract

23
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What makes smooth muscle cells perform their function?

Il-4,13 and mast cell mediators

24
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What is the role of goblet cells in STH infections?

proliferation & mucous secretion

25
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What promotes goblet cells to perform their action?

Il-4,13

26
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What is the overall impact of all the cells in response to STH infections, mediated by Th2 cells?

weep & sweep response

27
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What is acute schistosomiasis?

a Th1 disease, pro-inflammatory responses activated

28
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What is chronic schistosomiasis?

a Th2 disease, granuloma formation occurs around trapped eggs

29
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What is malaria cause by?

plasmodium falciparum

30
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How do the symptoms of malaria range?

from asymptomatic to severe

31
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Where is malaria an issue?

Africa

32
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Who are the most vulnerable to malaria?

young children

33
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What are the 4 challenges to eliminated malaria?

- insecticide & drug resistance

- poor coverage of current interventions

- COVID-19 interruptions

- vax is partially efficacious

34
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What is the name of the parasite in the liver stage?

sporozoite

35
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How many sporozoites are inoculated in the skin?

36
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What is important to remember about sporozoites?

they are very motile

37
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What do infected hepatocyte produce?

20,000 merozoites

38
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What is the immune's defence against sporozoites?

Ab, complement & phagocytosis

39
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What is the immune's defence against infected hepatocytes?

cytotoxic CD8+ T cells

40
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What is the name of the parasite in the blood stage?

merozoite

41
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How many merozoites does one produce?

20

42
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What is bad about infected RBC?

they are adhesive & cause disease

43
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What is the immune's defence against merozoites?

Ab, complement & phagocytosis

44
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What is the immune's defence against RBC?

Ab & phagocytes

45
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What is the name of the parasite at the sexual stage?

gametocyte

46
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What happens to gametocytes?

transmitted to mosquitos, undergo sexual development into sporozoites

47
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What is the immune's defence against gametocytes?

Ab, complement

48
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What is the particularity of the immune's defence against gametocytes?

can only perform actions in mosquito (when the capsule thing is removed)

49
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What are the 3 ways malaria avoids the immune system?

sporozoite motility - active migration to prevent uptake from phagocytes

PfEMP1 - highly polymorphic, involved in adhesion & sequestration

complement reg - m & g bind factor H to prevent complement activation

50
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What is SMA?

severe malaria anaemia

51
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What is the main cause of SMA?

the loss of uninfected RBC

52
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What is altered in SMA?

complement regulation

53
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How is complement regulation changed in SMA?

- express CR1 on uninfected RBC

- binds C3b to hold on to IC

- IC + C3b phagocytosed

- acquired loss of CR1

54
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How is natural immunity acquire?

slowly

55
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What is the natural immunity to malaria?

not sterile, mediated by Ab to blood stage

56
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Who does the natural immunity benefit?

individual as they are asymptomatic but still carry malaria

57
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What are the 3 approaches to malaria vaccines?

sporozoites - prevent infection

merozoites - prevent disease

gametocytes - prevent transmission

58
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What are the 3 leading vaccines?

sporozoite focused

whole live attenuated

RTTS

R21

59
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What is the whole live attenuated vax?

sterile immunity, more effective in niave populations

60
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What is the RTSS vax?

only recommended vax, virus like, based on CSP antigen, moderate efficacy

61
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What is the R21 vax?

promising new candidate, diff expression system & adjuvant, efficacy with phase 2 trial

62
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What are the 2 challenges to malaria vaccines?

- poor efficacy & longevity in malaria exposed populations

- don't know what immune response should be activated

63
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What is interesting about Mtb?

a lot of people are infected with it, but never present with symptoms

64
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What are the 3 immune evasion mechanisms of Mtb (prior to entering macrophage)?

- privileged niche

- PDIM (hide PAMPS)

- PGL (induces secretion of CCL2)

65
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What are the 2 virulence factors of Mtb (after entering the macrophage)?

- PknG (prevent fusion of phagosome + lysosome)

- ESX-1 / ESTAT6 (allows Mtb to escape from phagosome, induces secretion of MMP for more macrophages)

66
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What cytokine is required for an effective immune response against Mtb?

IFNy

67
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What has helped us understand the important cells & cytokines against Mtb?

biologics & animal studies

suppress immune system (in a particular way, eg cell or signal transduction pathway) latent infection become activated, deduce what was important

68
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What are the 2 important cells and 2 important cytokines against Mtb?

CD4+ & macrophages

TNF-a & IFN-y

69
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What 3 host cell pathways impact the controlling of Mtb?

intrinsic/extrinsic apoptosis

necrosis

70
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Who promotes apoptosis vs necrosis?

apoptosis - host, want to kill Mtb properly & initiate CD4+ T cell response

necrosis - Mtb, don't want to kill itself, want an inflammatory response to increase transmission to other macrophages

71
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What are the important parts of the extrinsic apoptotic pathway?

TNF activate, caspase 8 involved, kills macrophages

72
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What are the important parts of the intrinsic pathway?

Bax/Bak involved, kills neutrophils

73
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What are the 3 signals for T cell activation?

1. TCR + peptide/MHCI

2. co-stim

3. cytokines

74
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What are the 3 types of CD8+ T cells?

- naive

- effector / CTL

- memory

75
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What is the innate immune response to a virus-infected cell? (3)

- PAMP detection via PRR

- production of type 1 IFN

- IFNa/b inhibits viral replication, upregulates MHC class I & activates NK cells & DCs

76
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What do activated DCs do? (3)

- produce IL-12

- induce Th1 response

- help activate CD8+ T cells

77
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What 2 things do activated CTLs produce?

- perforin (punch holes)

- granzyme (activate intracell enzymes to induce apoptosis)

78
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What 3 cytokines do CTLs produce?

- TNFa (pro-inflamm, activates endothelium)

- IFN-y (inhibits viral replication, activates macrophages)

- IL-2 (autocrine, increase CTL prolif & survival)

79
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What are the 3 physical & chemical immune components of a viral infection?

epithelium, mucous, mucosal anti-viral peptides

80
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What are 5 innate immune response components of a viral infection?

NKT cells, NK cells, TLRs, NLRs, type 1 IFNs

81
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What are 4 adaptive immune response components of a viral infection?

plasma cells, CTLs, Abs, type 2 IFNs

82
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What are the 2 determinants of an effective anti-viral CD8+ T cell response?

magnitude and function

83
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What is immunodominance?

one epitope on an antigen produces a larger response than other epitopes

84
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What are the 2 things that influence how functional a CD8+ T cell is?

cytotoxicity (cytotoxic granules & Fas-FasL engagement)

production of cytokines

85
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What does IFNy do (in context of viral infections)? (3)

inhibit viral replication

induce MHCI upregulation

86
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What does TNFa do (in the context of viral infections)? (3)

macrophage activation

lysis of infected cells

pro-inflamm

87
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What are the two surface proteins of influenza?

hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

88
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What is hemagglutinin? (2)

allows binding & entry to host cell

neutralising Ab stops entering to prevent infection

89
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What is neuraminidase?

allows viral release from cells

90
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What are seasonal flu epidemics a result of?

small mutations in HA/NA

91
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How is a good vax made for the flu? (2)

requires correct predictions & the strains not to mutate

92
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What is the first step in immunopathology of the flu?

viral peptide/MHCI complexes on epithelial cells are recognised by CTL

93
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What occurs after the first step in the immunopathology of the flu?

1. infected cells produce chemokines - induces cellular infiltration & bystander epithelial cell death

2. CTL produces cytotoxic molecules

3. CTL produce cytokines to activate epithelial cells to produce chemokines

94
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What do IL-8 & CXCL1 (produced from epithelial cells) do?

recruit neutrophils

95
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What do CCL5 (produced from epithelial cells) do?

recruit CTL

96
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What do CCL2/MCP-1 (produced from epithelial cells) do?

recruit macrophages

97
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What are the 2 ways DC uptake viral antigens after epithelial cell dies from viral infection?

direct - endocytosis

indirect - they get infected

98
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What occurs after DCs uptake viral antigens?

- migrate to DLN & present Ag

- prime T cells

- CTL to migrate to site of infection

- CTL produce antiviral cytokines & directly kill infected cells

99
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What part of the immune system is inflammation important in?

innate

100
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What is acute inflammation?

short lived, warranted to clear an irritant, triggered by innate