Chapter 5 EMT

1. The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.

A. midline

B. proximal

C. superior

D. midaxillary

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144

2. The ___________ plane separates the body into left and right halves.

A. sagittal

B. coronal

C. transverse

D. midsagittal

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144

3. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:

A. proximal forearm.

B. superior forearm.

C. dorsal forearm.

D. distal forearm.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

4. A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:

A. distal humerus fracture.

B. proximal elbow fracture.

C. distal forearm fracture.

D. proximal humerus fracture.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

5. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is:

A. lateral.

B. medial.

C. midaxillary.

D. midclavicular.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

6. The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is:

A. dorsal.

B. inferior.

C. internal.

D. superior.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

7. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

A. distal.

B. medial.

C. lateral.

D. proximal.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

8. In relation to the chest, the back is:

A. ventral.

B. inferior.

C. anterior.

D. posterior.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

9. Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"?

A. medial

B. posterior

C. palmar

D. anterior

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 144-145

10. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. What aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?

A. palmar

B. plantar

C. dorsal

D. ventral

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 145

11. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the left ventricles.

A. apex

B. base

C. dorsum

D. septum

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 145

12. Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:

A. flexion.

B. extension.

C. adduction.

D. abduction.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 145

13. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

A. medial.

B. proximal.

C. bilateral.

D. unilateral.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 146

14. Relative to the kidneys, the liver is:

A. medial.

B. dorsal.

C. unilateral.

D. posterior.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 146

15. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?

A. dorsal

B. supine

C. prone

D. recumbent

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 147

16. A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position:

A. prone

B. supine

C. Fowler's

D. recovery

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 147

17. Trendelenburg's position is MOST accurately defined as a:

A. recumbent position with the head lower than the legs.

B. supine position with the legs elevated approximately 6" to 12".

C. recumbent position with the head elevated at a 25° to 45° angle.

D. supine position with the legs elevated 6" to 12" higher than the head.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 147

18. The axial skeleton is composed of the:

A. arms, legs, and pelvis.

B. lower part of the torso and the legs.

C. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

D. bones that comprise the pelvic girdle.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 147

19. The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:

A. foramen ovale.

B. vertebral foramen.

C. spinous foramen.

D. foramen magnum.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

20. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

A. mastoid

B. maxilla

C. mandible

D. zygoma

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

21. The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.

A. orbit

B. occiput

C. mastoid

D. sphenoid

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

22. The atlas is the:

A. point where the ribs attach to the sternum.

B. seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable.

C. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

D. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

23. The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae.

A. four

B. five

C. six

D. seven

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

24. Twelve pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column?

A. sacral

B. lumbar

C. thoracic

D. coccyx

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

25. The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis.

A. sacrum

B. coccyx

C. lumbar

D. thoracic

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

26. The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the:

A. ilium.

B. coccyx.

C. sacrum.

D. ischium.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

27. Select the areas of the spinal column in descending order.

A. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccyx

B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, sacral

D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccyx

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 148

28. The most superior portion of the sternum is called the:

A. manubrium.

B. costal arch.

C. angle of Louis.

D. xiphoid process.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 149

29. The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the:

A. sternal notch.

B. xiphoid process.

C. angle of Louis.

D. jugular notch.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 149

30. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A. clavicle, scapula, humerus

B. acromion, clavicle, scapula

C. acromion, scapula, humerus

D. acromion, humerus, clavicle

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 149

31. The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen.

A. costal arch

B. diaphragm

C. mediastinum

D. costovertebral angle

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

32. The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the:

A. glenoid.

B. clavicle.

C. scapula.

D. acromion.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

33. The bones of the forearm are called the:

A. radius and ulna.

B. tibia and radius.

C. humerus and ulna.

D. radius and humerus.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

34. The supporting bone of the arm is the:

A. ulna.

B. humerus.

C. radius.

D. clavicle.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

35. The carpal bones form the:

A. foot.

B. ankle.

C. hand.

D. wrist.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

36. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the:

A. sacrum and ischium.

B. ilium, ischium, and pubis.

C. pubis and acetabulum.

D. ilium, pubis, and sacrum.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

37. The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the:

A. ilium.

B. ischium.

C. acetabulum.

D. femoral condyle.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

38. The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the:

A. iliac crest.

B. sacroiliac joint.

C. sacral symphysis.

D. greater trochanter.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150

39. The bones that comprise the fingers and toes are called:

A. carpals.

B. metacarpals.

C. phalanges.

D. metatarsals

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 150-151

40. Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:

A. tibia.

B. patella.

C. femur.

D. calcaneus.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 151

41. The distal aspect of the tibia forms the:

A. lateral condyle.

B. medial malleolus.

C. Achilles tendon.

D. lateral malleolus.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 151

42. The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.

A. hinge

B. saddle

C. gliding

D. ball-and-socket

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 152

43. A person's bones would become brittle if he or she was deficient in:

A. sodium.

B. calcium.

C. potassium.

D. magnesium.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 153

44. Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?

A. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

B. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels.

C. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle.

D. Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 153

45. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?

A. blood vessels

B. urinary system

C. skeletal system

D. gastrointestinal tract

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 153

46. Skeletal muscle is also called:

A. smooth muscle.

B. autonomic muscle.

C. voluntary muscle.

D. involuntary muscle.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 153

47. A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:

A. heat.

B. oxygen.

C. nitrogen.

D. lactic acid.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 154

48. Which of the following is a function of the upper airway?

A. relaxes bronchiole smooth muscle

B. exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide

C. creates sound from vocal cord vibration

D. warms and humidifies inhaled air

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 155

49. The vocal cords are located in the:

A. larynx.

B. pharynx.

C. oropharynx.

D. nasopharynx

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 155

50. The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the:

A. uvula.

B. epiglottis.

C. vallecula.

D. pharynx.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 155

51. The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the:

A. costal cartilage.

B. cricoid cartilage.

C. thyroid cartilage.

D. laryngo cartilage.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 155

52. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 157

53. As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:

A. pleura.

B. alveoli.

C. bronchi.

D. capillaries.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 157

54. The diaphragm is a unique muscle because it:

A. is the exclusive muscle of breathing.

B. does not receive impulses from the brain.

C. is both a voluntary and involuntary muscle.

D. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 158

55. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:

A. inhalation.

B. exhalation.

C. respiration.

D. ventilation.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 158

56. Negative pressure breathing involves:

A. relaxing the respiratory muscles.

B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.

C. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

D. increasing airway resistance during breathing.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 158

57. How does respiration differ from ventilation?

A. Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs.

B. Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax.

C. Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed.

D. Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the simple movement of air between the lungs and the environment.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 158-159

58. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:

A. osmosis.

B. breathing.

C. diffusion.

D. ventilation.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 159

59. Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):

A. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

B. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the CSF.

C. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the CSF.

D. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 159

60. Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct?

A. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels.

B. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

C. The medulla's primary role is to increase your level of oxygen, not to decrease your level of carbon dioxide.

D. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of CSF.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 159

61. Relative to the adult's airway, the child's:

A. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.

B. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.

C. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible.

D. mouth and nose are proportionately larger.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 160

62. The backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the:

A. hypoxic drive.

B. pneumotaxic drive.

C. hypocarbic drive.

D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 160

63. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is a part of the brain stem and is responsible for:

A. initiating inspiration.

B. inhibiting deep inspiration.

C. controlling expiration.

D. decreasing respiratory depth.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 160

64. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children?

A. seesaw respirations

B. unequal breath sounds

C. unequal chest expansion

D. irregular breathing pattern

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 161

65. What function does the pneumotaxic center serve?

A. stimulates the DRG, resulting in prolonged inspiration

B. inhibits the DRG, but only affects the respiratory rate

C. inhibits the DRG, resulting in shorter, faster respirations

D. stimulates the DRG, resulting in longer, slower respirations

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 161

66. Both areas of the pons are used to:

A. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed.

B. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

C. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing.

D. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 161

67. The Hering-Breuer reflex is stimulated when:

A. excess carbon dioxide needs to be eliminated from the body.

B. stretch receptors in the chest wall detect that the lungs are too full.

C. the DRG stops and the process of expiration begins.

D. the brain stem senses that there is a low amount of oxygen in the blood.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 161

68. The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called:

A. tidal volume.

B. residual volume.

C. inspiratory reserve volume.

D. expiratory reserve volume.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 162

69. Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:

A. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli.

B. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place.

C. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide.

D. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 162

70. If an average-sized patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if his or her respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:

A. minute volume is decreased.

B. inspiratory reserve is increased.

C. overall tidal volume is increased.

D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 162

71. What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?

A. 5,600 mL

B. 6,000 mL

C. 7,200 mL

D. 8,000 mL

Answer: A

Question Type: Critical Thinking

Page: 162

72. Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. a reduction in tidal volume.

B. respirations of 20 breaths/min.

C. bilaterally clear breath sounds.

D. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 162

73. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult?

A. use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis

B. respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

C. cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles

D. respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 162

74. Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct?

A. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume.

B. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops.

C. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast irregular breaths.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 163

75. The heart muscle is called the:

A. epicardium.

B. myocardium.

C. pericardium.

D. endocardium.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 163

76. Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct?

A. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system.

B. It can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes.

C. It receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries.

D. It relies on an external electrical source to correctly function.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 163

77. The primary function of the right atrium is to:

A. receive blood from the vena cava.

B. pump blood to the pulmonary artery.

C. receive blood from the pulmonary veins.

D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 164

78. Contraction of the right ventricle causes:

A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves.

B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins.

C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

D. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 164

79. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:

A. pulmonary veins.

B. pulmonary arteries.

C. inferior venae cavae.

D. superior venae cavae.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 164

80. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed:

A. 70 beats/min.

B. 80 beats/min.

C. 90 beats/min.

D. 100 beats/min.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 165

81. During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart. This is called stroke volume (SV).

A. 40 to 50 mL

B. 70 to 80 mL

C. 90 to 100 mL

D. 100 to 120 mL

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 165

82. Cardiac output (CO) is affected by:

A. heart rate only.

B. stroke volume only.

C. stroke volume and heart rate.

D. the patient's blood pressure.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 165

83. The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:

A. sinoatrial node.

B. bundle of His.

C. Purkinje fibers.

D. atrioventricular node.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 165

84. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?

A. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles.

B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.

C. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease.

D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

85. The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the:

A. aorta.

B. carotid.

C. brachial.

D. femoral.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

86. Which of the following are central pulses?

A. femoral and carotid

B. brachial and radial

C. temporal and pedal

D. popliteal and ulnar

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

87. Which of the following arteries does NOT carry highly oxygenated blood?

A. aorta

B. renal

C. femoral

D. pulmonary

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

88. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the:

A. ventral pedis.

B. dorsalis pedis.

C. anterior tibial.

D. posterior tibial.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

89. The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:

A. venules.

B. arteries.

C. arterioles.

D. capillaries.

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 166

90. The descending aorta branches into the:

A. deep femoral arteries.

B. internal carotid arteries.

C. common iliac arteries.

D. external carotid arteries.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 167

91. Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because:

A. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells.

B. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen.

C. high levels of oxygen remain in the cell and can cause significant damage.

D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cell, but oxygen cannot enter.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 168

92. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the:

A. common iliac vein.

B. coronary sinus vein.

C. inferior vena cava.

D. superior vena cava.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 169

93. Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:

A. liver.

B. spleen.

C. kidney.

D. pancreas.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 169

94. Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct?

A. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

B. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.

C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism.

D. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins.

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 169

95. Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen.

A. monocytes

B. erythrocytes

C. leukocytes

D. thrombocytes

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170

96. White blood cells are also called leukocytes and function by:

A. producing the body's erythrocytes.

B. producing blood-clotting factors.

C. protecting the body from infection.

D. carrying oxygen and other nutrients.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170

97. What is the function of platelets?

A. initial formation of a blood clot

B. transport of oxygen and nutrients

C. defense against invading organisms

D. transport of cellular waste materials

Answer: A

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170

98. The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called:

A. systole.

B. diastole.

C. cardiac output.

D. stroke volume.

Answer: B

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170

99. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" represents:

A. atrial contraction.

B. ventricular filling.

C. ventricular contraction.

D. ventricular relaxation.

Answer: C

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170

100. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her body.

A. 3 L

B. 4 L

C. 5 L

D. 6 L

Answer: D

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: 170