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Define nausea
Unpleasant sensation associated with an inclination to vomit
Define vomiting or emesis
Autonomic response that results in the forceful expulsion of gastric contents through the mouth
What drugs can cause drug induced nausea/vomiting?
Cancer therapies, digoxin, opioids, antibiotics, volatile general anesthetics, anticonvulsants, oral contraceptives, oral hypoglycemics
What cancer therapies can cause DINV?
Radiation therapy, chemotherapy (antineoplastic agents)
What is the 4-level classification system used for?
Defines risk for emesis among agents used in oncology
How does the 4-level classification system classify risk?
High risk = > 90%
Moderate risk = 30-90%
Low risk = 10-30%
Minimal risk = < 10%
What are common risk factors for N/V?
Surgery (PONV), pregnancy, chemotherapy (CINV)
Describe the clinical presentation of N/V
Symptoms = diaphoresis, pallor, faintness, salivation
Signs = dehydration
Labs = electrolyte imbalances, elevated BUN and Cr
Describe simple N/V
Occurs occasionally, self-limiting
Describe complex N/V
Can cause complications, needs treatment
What are metabolic complications of complex vomiting?
Dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, acid/base abnormalities
What are GI-related complications of complex vomiting?
Esophageal tears, aspiration
What is another complication of complex vomiting?
Malnutrition
What are treatment goals of N/V?
Prevent/eliminate nausea and vomiting
Identify underlying cause
Minimize adverse effects and limit drug interactions
Assessment of fluid and electrolyte status with appropriate replacement
Describe non-pharmacologic diet interventions for N/V
Identify/reduce dietary triggers
Eat frequent, small meals
Avoid large, fatty, spicy meals, and fried foods
BRAT diet
Electrolyte drinks
Describe non-pharmacologic behavioral interventions for N/V
Identify/avoid any other triggers
Relaxations, biofeedback, hypnosis, acupuncture, yoga, chewing gum
What are three alternative treatments for N/V?
Acupuncture, ginger, pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
What are indications for acupuncture?
CINV, PONV, early pregnancy-related N/V
What is the dosing and indication for ginger?
250 mg (powdered root) prior to meals + at bedtime
Pregnancy-related N/V
What is the indication for pyridoxine (vitamin B6)?
Early pregnancy-related N/V
What is the general treatment approach for simple N/V?
Oral fluid intake/hydration
OTC treatment if needed
Non-pharmacologic treatments
What is the general treatment approach for complex N/V?
Oral to IV fluid/electrolytes
Combination medication regimen with different MOAs
What is the treatment approach for motion sickness?
Antihistamines/antimuscarinics
Use 30-60 min prior to anticipated motion event, as medication is more effective when given prophylactically
Compare prescription vs. OTC treatments for motion sickness
Rx = scopolamine
OTC = diphenhydramine, meclizine, dimenhydrinate
What are patient-related risk factors for PONV?
Age less than 50, female, nonsmoker, history of PONV or motion sickness, hydration status
What are risk factors for PONV that are related to anesthesia?
Use of general anesthesia, use of volatile anesthetics, nitrous oxide use for > 1 hr, use of opioids
What are risk factors for PONV that are related to surgery?
Type of surgical procedure (laparoscopic, gynecological, cholecystectomy), duration of surgery
Describe risk mitigation for adult PONV
Minimize use of NO, volatile anesthetics, high-dose neostigmine
Consider regional anesthesia
Opioid sparing/multimodal anesthesia (enhanced recovery pathway)
How many agents should be given for PONV based on the number of risk factors present?
1-2 risk factors = give 2 agents
> 2 risk factors = give 3-4 agents
What N/V medications can be used for prophylaxis?
5HT3RAs, antihistamines, propofol anesthesia, acupuncture, corticosteroids, dopamine antagonists, NK1RAs, anticholinergics
Describe rescue treatments for PONV
Use anti-emetic from different class than prophylactic drug
What four predictors is the Apfel simplified risk score based on?
Female, non-smoker, history of motion sickness/PONV, postoperative opioids
Each factor = +1 to score
How are the results of the Apfel simplified risk score interpreted?
0-1 risk factors = low risk
2 risk factors = medium risk
3+ risk factors = high risk
How are the results of the Apfel simplified risk score interpreted in terms of percent incidence of PONV?
0 risk factors = 0%
1 risk factor = 20%
2 risk factors = 40%
3 risk factors = 60%
4 risk factors = 80%
How can the risk of PONV be minimized?
Hydration, local (regional) anesthetic instead of systemic, avoid NO and volatile anesthetics, avoid opioids and consider other analgesics
Describe PONV prophylaxis for children and those with no risk factors
No antiemetic OR either a 5HT3 RA or dexamethasone
Describe PONV prophylaxis for patients with 1-2 risk factors
Multi-modal prophylaxis recommended = 2-drug regimen
What is the cornerstone of therapy when considering a 2-drug regimen for PONV?
Combination of 5HT3 RA plus dexamethasone (4-8 mg)
Also strong evidence to support the use of aprepitant + dexamethasone
Describe PONV prophylaxis for patients with > 2 risk factors
Multi-modal prophylaxis recommended = 3-4 drug regimen from different drug classes
What antiemetics should be administered at the introduction of anesthesia?
Aprepitant, palonosetron, dexamethasone
What antiemetics should be administered at the end of surgery?
Droperidol, 5HT3 RAs
What antiemetic should be administered the evening prior to surgery or 2-4 hours prior to anesthesia?
Scopolamine
Describe rescue therapy for PONV
When using the cornerstone of therapy, patients should be given rescue therapy from a different drug class such as dopamine antagonists = a phenothiazine, metoclopramide, droperidol
Describe repeating agents for PONV following surgery
Repeating the agent given for PONV prophylaxis within 6 hours of surgery offers no additional benefit
If an emetic episode occurs > 6 hours post-op, a repeat dose of 5-HT3 RA can be considered
What PONV medications is it NOT recommended to repeat doses of?
Dexamethasone or transdermal scopolamine
What is the recommended treatment of PONV when no prophylaxis was given?
Low dose 5HT3 RA
Ex: ondansetron 4 mg PO or IV
What is the role in therapy of 5HT3 RAs?
Considered standard of care in management of CINV and PONV
What is considered the "gold-standard" 5HT3 RA?
Ondansetron
What is the maximum IV dose of ondansetron and why?
16 mg
High bioavailability = risk of QT prolongation and at 16 mg, the risks outweigh the benefits
What dose-related effect can occur with any 5HT3 RA?
Dose-related QTc prolongation
Monitor ECG if high risk
What is notable about palonosetron compared to other 5HT3 RAs?
Longer half-life (~40 h)
This means that it can prevent both acute AND delayed CINV
What is notable about granisetron compared to other 5HT3 RAs?
Longer acting
This means that it is effective in preventing emesis beyond 24 h
What is the role in therapy of corticosteroids?
Prevention of CINV or PONV, as a single agent or in combination with other antiemetics
Low cost
What are adverse events of corticosteroids?
Minimal with one-time dosing
Additional dosing could cause hyperglycemia, fluid retention, insomnia, psychosis, mood changes, or infection risk
What is the role in therapy of NK1RAs?
In combination with other antiemetics in CINV and PONV
Which NK1RA is a substrate and moderate inhibitor of CYP3A4 and a weak inducer of CYP2C9?
Aprepitant
T 1/2 = ~40h
What DDIs can occur with aprepitant?
May increase concentration of chemotherapy medications
Risk for decreased effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives
Can increase INR when given with warfarin therapy
What are some DDIs with rolapitant?
Some antineoplastic meds
What is an FDA warning of rolapitant?
Reports of severe hypersensitivity reactions shortly following IV administration
What should patients be screened for prior to rolapitant administration?
Cross-reactive allergens to components of rolapitant (soybeans, legumes)
What is the role in therapy of antihistamines and antimuscarinics?
Primary use = prevention of N/V associated with vertigo and motion sickness
Frequently employed as self-care therapies
What is the dosing of scopolamine patches?
Apply 1 patch behind the ear at least 2-4 hours prior to time of intended effect
Lasts 72 h
What are adverse effects of antihistamines and antimuscarinics?
Anticholinergic-related = sedation/drowsiness/confusion, dry mouth, blurry vision, urinary retention
Due to the adverse effects, in which patient populations should antihistamines/antimuscarinics be avoided?
Geriatrics due to sedation, drowsiness, confusion
Narrow angle glaucoma due to blurry vision
BPH due to urinary retention
What is the role in therapy or dopamine antagonists?
NOT first-line for N/V
Used primarily as rescue antiemetics for PONV
Why are dopamine antagonists NOT first-line agents for N/V?
Due to their side effects of sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and extrapyramidal symptoms
What is the role in therapy of butyrophenones?
If used, is mainly for anticipatory and acute CINV and PONV
What is the role in therapy of metoclopramide?
Pro-kinetic = accelerates transit through small bowel
Useful in gastroparesis but limited by CNS effects
What are general AEs of dopamine antagonists?
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) = AVOID chronic use (> 12 weeks)
QTc prolongation = TdP
Sedation, hypotension, hyperprolactinemia
What are examples of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Pseudoparkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, tardive dyskinesia
What are examples of pseudoparkinsonism?
Stooped posture, shuffling gait, rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors at rest, pill-rolling motion of the hand
What are examples of acute dystonia?
Facial grimacing, involuntary upward eye movement, muscle spasms of the tongue, face, neck, and back, laryngeal spasms
What are examples of akathisia?
Restless, trouble standing still, paces the floor, feet in constant motion (rocking back and forth)
What are examples of tardive dyskinesia?
Protrusion and rolling of the tongue, sucking and smacking movements of the lips, chewing motion, facial dyskinesia, involuntary movements of the body and extremities
Which dopamine antagonists have the highest risk of QTc prolongation?
Butyrophenones > phenothiazines > metoclopramide
Which dopamine antagonist has a BBW and what it is?
Droperidol
BBW = risk of sudden cardiac death
How should a patient be monitored prior to droperidol administration?
12-lead ECG recommended prior to administration
Cardiac monitoring for 2-3 hours following administration
What can occur if promethazine IV is administered in an undiluted bolus?
Tissue necrosis
What is the MOA of BZDs?
GABA receptor antagonist = relaxation
What is the role in therapy of BZDs?
Relatively weak antiemetics, generally used as an adjunct to other antiemetics
Used to prevent anxiety or anticipatory N/V, some role in PONV
What are AEs of BZDs?
Dizziness, sedation
Avoid in older adult population due to fall risk
Development of tolerance = dependence = withdrawal
What is the role in therapy of cannabinoids?
Not indicated as first-line agents
Used for CINV for breakthrough N/V, symptomatic treatment in combination with other antiemetics, or when CINV is refractory to other antiemetics
What are adverse effects of cannabinoids?
CNS depression = avoid in older adults!
Hypotension, xerostomia, euphoria
What is the first-line treatment for N/V in pregnancy?
Dietary prevention
Avoid spicy, fatty, or large meals and eat smaller, more frequent meals (every 1-2 hrs)
Avoid triggers, use ginger, pre-natal vitamins 1 month before pregnancy may prevent N/V
What is the first-line therapy for refractory/persistent N/V in pregnancy?
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) +/- doxylamine
If no relief, can try other agents, like dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine, prochlorperazine, or promethazine
IV fluids may be needed in those with dehydration
How should N/V be treated in pediatrics?
Usually self-limiting and improves with correction of dehydration
Which antiemetic is contraindicated in patients under 2 and why?
Promethazine
Potential risk of respiratory depression