Micro 10-11

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Last updated 12:42 AM on 7/14/26
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94 Terms

1
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Which technique(s) is/are used to help identify and classify bacteria?

-Culture characteristics

-Nucleic acid analysis

-Microscopic examination

-Biochemical tests

All of the choices are correct.

2
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If an acid-fast bacterium is detected in a clinical sample, then the organism could be

Mycobacterium leprae

3
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Phage typing

is used to distinguish bacterial strains

4
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DNA probes have been very useful in

identifying organisms in pure culture.

5
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In 1908 Orla-Jensen suggested that bacteria be grouped according to their

physiology

6
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Strains of an organism can always reliably be identified using RFLPs (restriction fragment length polymorphisms).

false

7
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If the GC content of two organisms is 60%, the

organisms are most likely related.

8
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Sequencing of rRNA is useful for

determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

9
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The "breath test" for Helicobacter pylori infection detects the presence of which of the following?

Urease

10
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Which type of ribosomal RNA is most often used in taxonomy?

165

11
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In E. coli O157:H7, the O157:H7 refers to the

the specific LPS and flagella type present.

12
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The more closely related two organisms are,

the more similar their nucleic acid sequence

13
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You are sent three clinical samples and are asked to determine whether they are the same strain. You perform standard identification techniques but cannot come to a conclusion. You decide to do an RFLP test. You digest the genomes of the organisms with the same restriction enzyme and run a gel. Each organism yields 5 bands on the gel, of the following sizes:

Organism A: 3 kb, 7 kb, 11 kb; 14 kb, 21 kb; Organism B: 3 kb, 7 kb, 2 kb, 8 kb, 11 kb; Organism C: 11 kb, 3 kb, 14 kb, 7 kb; 21 kb

What conclusion(s) can you make from this result?

Organisms A and C are likely the same strain but are different from organism B.

14
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A DNA similarity of 75% between two organisms

suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level

15
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An early attempt by Cohn at bacterial classification grouped bacteria according to their

shape

16
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If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both,

they may or may not be related.

17
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Streptococcus pyogenes would be

beta hemolytic AND catalase negative.

18
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You are a lab technician processing a patient sample taken from a throat swab. You have performed a Gram stain and observed chains of purple spherical cells. A catalase test is positive. Colonies on blood agar are β-hemolytic. From these results you can conclude that

the sample does NOT contain Streptococcus pyogenes

19
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Very often clinically relevant information may be obtained by examining

a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism

20
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Media that change color as a result of the biochemical activity of growing bacteria

usually contain a pH indicator.

21
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You perform a series of tests on an unknown bacterium in an effort to identify it. The organism is a Gram-negative, catalase positive and coagulase positive coccus. Consider the dichotomous key and select the CORRECT statement.

COME BACK TO THIS!!!!!!!!

22
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Which of the following describes a method used to test for the enzyme urease?

A biochemical test conducted in the laboratory using a medium that contains urea and a pH indicator.

23
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Serratia marcescens colonies are red when incubated at 37°C.

False

24
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All known species of bacteria are described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

True

25
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Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve

comparison of DNA or RNA

26
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Complex structures called fruiting bodies are a characteristic of

myxobacteria

27
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Swarmer cells are

formed by Myxobacteria

28
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The most medically relevant species of Pseudomonas is P. aeruginosa.

True

29
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Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococcus are obligate fermenters that can exist in an aerobic environment due to their use of catalase to mitigate the presence of oxygen.

False

30
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Oxygenic prototrophs are primary producers. What does this mean?

They convert CO2 into organic compounds, sustaining other forms of life.

31
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Which of the following about Mycoplasma is FALSE?

They are killed by penicillin.

32
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The purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria

both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons

33
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Propionibacterium

produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

34
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Many spirochetes are difficult to cultivate, so their classification is based on their

morphology AND ability to cause disease

35
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The genomes of free-living spirochetes are larger than those living in animal hosts. Why might this be so?

Free-living spirochetes will need genes for additional proteins to synthesize or obtain their own food from the environment. Parasitic spirochetes obtain nutrients from the animal host.

36
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Heterocysts

are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase.

37
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Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.

True

38
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Which causes uncontrolled growth of plant tissue, resulting in a tumor?

Agrobacterium

39
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Which of the following microbes is(are) important to cheese-making?

Lactic acid bacteria AND Propionibacterium

40
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Agrobacterium species

contain the Ti plasmid that modifies the growth of plant tissue

41
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Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod associated with gastrointestinal signs/symptoms?

Clostridioides difficile

42
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Which of the following is/are obligate intracellular parasites?

Chlamydia and Rickettsia

43
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Rhizobium is considered an endosymbiont with plants.

True

44
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Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body.

True

45
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Please select the definition that is INCORRECT.

Mycobacteria—Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex fruiting bodies.

46
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Which of the following are spirochetes?

Borrelia AND Treponema

47
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Which of the following statements about members of the family Enterobacteriaceae is NOT true?

Members only reside in the intestinal tract of humans.

48
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Which of the following genera are obligate intracellular parasites?

Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia

49
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Organisms that typically produce colonies with a fried egg appearance are the

Mycoplasmas

50
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Endospores

are a dormant form of a bacterium AND are formed by members of medically relevant groups of bacteria.

51
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In a MALDI-TOF assay,

a microorganism's proteins are separated and sorted by mass to generate a profile that provides a fast way to identify a colony.

52
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Horizontal DNA transfer may make it more difficult to construct phylogenetic trees.

True

53
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A soluble greenish pigment is produced by

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

54
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Why might it be easier to identify the bacterium that caused pneumonia than one that caused a wound infection?

Bacteria that cause pneumonia can be identified with few tests because the lungs have no normal microbiota. Many bacteria are normally found on the skin however; these may be in the wound, complicating identification.

55
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Woese

was involved in determining rRNA sequences AND proposed breaking prokaryotes into two groups.

56
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The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis

indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name

57
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The three domain classification scheme uses

Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya.

58
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Size and shape may allow one to differentiate between a bacterium, fungus, and protozoan.

True

59
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Explain the difference between a biotype and a serotype.

A biotype is the biochemical profile of a particular microorganism, while the serotype is the difference in its surface structures/antigens that will lead to separate immune responses from an organism (characterized by presence of different antibodies in the individual's serum).

60
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Please select the FALSE statement regarding taxonomic hierarchy.

A domain is a collection of similar kingdoms; there are three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Animalia.

61
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rRNA sequence comparisons are useful for determining evolutionary relationships.

True

62
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API^TM, Enterotube^TM , and Vitek^TM and are all

commercially available methods used to identify bacteria.

63
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The basic taxonomic unit in the classification scheme of plants and animals is

species

64
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Which technique(s) is/are used to help identify and classify bacteria?

-Microscopic examination

-Biochemical tests

-Nucleic acid analysis

-Culture characteristics

-All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

65
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Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci found in a urethral sample from a male is indicative of

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

66
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A situation in which diagnostic tests used to identify pathogens are done at or near the site of patient care is called

point-of-care testing (POCT)

67
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Phenotypically identical bacteria

may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis

68
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Streptococcus pyogenes can be easily distinguished microscopically from other Streptococcus species.

False

69
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The genus of bacteria that is able to fix nitrogen and form heterocysts is

anabaena

70
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Phycobiliproteins are

found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

71
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Which of the following is NOT associated with a Clostridium species?

Strep throat

72
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The methanogens

are part of the domain Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane

73
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Pseudomonas species

are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials AND are mostly harmless except for the opportunistic P. aeruginosa

74
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The lactobacilli, in their role as normal microbiota of the vagina, help the vagina resist infection by contributing to

acidity of the vagina

75
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Please select the FALSE statement regarding sheathed bacteria.

The sheath allows these bacteria to perform photosynthesis

76
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How could heavily fertilized lawns contribute to cyanobacterial blooms in lakes and oceans?

Run-off from the lawns will get into the water system, leading to large amounts of nitrogen that can be used by cyanobacteria in water systems.

77
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What distinguishes Staphylococcus, species from Streptococcus, Enterococcus and Lactococcus species?

The production of catalase

78
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Archaea are typically found living in extreme environments. An exception to this are the

methanogens

79
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Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)?

Mycobacterium leprae

80
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Azotobacter

fixes nitrogen.

81
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How do bioluminescent bacteria aid the flashlight fish?

They help the fish confuse predators and capture prey.

82
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Which statement comparing Rhizobia and Agrobacterium is TRUE?

Rhizobia are plant endosymbionts; Agrobacterium is a plant pathogen

83
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How can Staphylococcus species be distinguished from other aerobic species including Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Lactococcus species.

Staphylococci are catalase-positive

84
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Streptomyces produce a number of antibiotics.

True

85
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Which of the following structures would be the best choice as a biological indicator to test autoclave operations?

Endospores formed by Geobacillus stearothermophilus

86
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What is the function of sheaths in aquatic bacteria?

-They help the bacteria attach to surfaces

-They protect the bacteria from predators

87
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Anaerobic chemolithotrophs

obtain energy by reducing inorganic chemicals.

88
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Which statement regarding the Gram stain is FALSE?

Gram staining can be used to differentiate intestinal normal microbiota from pathogens—for example differentiating E. coli from Salmonella enterica.

89
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A breath test assaying for radioactive carbon dioxide may be used to indicate the presence of

Helicobacter pylori.

90
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The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor

can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences

91
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Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rRNA data and other techniques may be explained by

horizontal DNA transfer

92
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Methanogens often grow in association with

fermentative bacteria.

93
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Anoxygenic phototrophs grow photosynthetically only under aerobic conditions.

False

94
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Thermus and Deinococcus

survive in extreme environments