Horse and Pig questions (some small ruminants)

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104 Terms

1
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What is an indication for performing abdominocentesis in the equine patient?

Colic

2
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Which castration method involves opening the scrotum to physically remove testicles?

Surgical castration

3
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When placing a limb bandage, what is one thing NOT to do?

Make sure you can get at least 3 fingers underneath the bandage

4
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You are performing a routine castration in the field. Which is the best catheter size to use?

14 gauge 3 inch

5
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In what situation would a taking a blood gas sample be useful?

When monitoring blood oxygenation levels

6
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When are interdermal injections given to horses?

Allergy Testing

7
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Why is an enema administered to a foal?

To stimulate passage of the meconium

8
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What is an important post-operative consideration for a castration?

Controlled exercise to keep the incision open

9
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When collecting cerebrospinal fluid from the atlantooccipitial space in an equine, what is required?

General anesthesia

10
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What is the first thing you should do if the horse you are medicating has an adverse drug reaction?

Stop administering the medication

11
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Which is NOT a good check to make sure an NG tube is properly placed in a horse?

Suck on the tube and get negative pressure

12
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True or False? Pleural fluid is produced by the cells that line the peritoneal cavity and can be examined for infection and neoplastic cells

False

13
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True or False? The hole from a sinocentesis can be left open to heal

True

14
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True or False? Caslick sutures are usually done with absorbable suture that don't get removed.

False

15
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A man walked out to the barn, groomed his 17 H bay TB gelding, and then proceeded to ride to the bar on Friday, where he drank an excessive amount. The next day, he woke up outside the bar with a splitting headache and missing one shoe. He then proceded to ride home on Friday. How is this possible?

The horse's name was Friday

16
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Which diseases are most commonly seen in newborn piglets?

Clostridium Perfringens Type C

17
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How is mycoplasma haemolamae transmitted?

Insects or needles

18
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True or False? Like strangles in horses, opening and lavaging Caseous Lymphadenitis lesions helps the animal recover quicker

False

19
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A 3 year old llama presents with hindlimb weakness and ataxia. What is your top differential?

Paralaphostrongylus tenuis

20
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To remove buck odor you can do which?

Burning removal

21
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When is choanal atresia most commonly noticed?

While nursing

22
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What is the best treatment for meningeal worm?

Glucocorticoids and Fenbendazole parasiticide

23
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True or False? There are two forms of Atrophic Rhinitis: Progressive which is mild and temporary, and Regressive which is severe and permanent

False

24
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What are two complications when using an elastrator?

Tetanus and Not including both testicles

25
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What are the main signs of adults with PRRS?

SMEDI

26
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What are the symptoms of Glassers Disease?

Fever, cough, lameness, depression

27
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IV Dantrolene is a treament for what porcine issue?

Malignant Hyperthermia

28
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What is the causative agent of Greasy Pig Disease?

Staphylococcus hyicus

29
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True or False? The axillary skin fold is an ideal location to administer SQ fluids

False

30
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Which disease can bet treated with antibiotics during the last few weeks of gestation?

Chlamydophilosis

31
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True or False? Orf is zoonotic if humans come in direct contact with a lesion

True

32
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A complication of Pleuropneumonia is....

Recovered pigs are carriers

33
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What are 4 infectious reproductive diseases that affect breeding swine?

Brucellosis, vaginal prolapse, SMEDI, Porcine Parvovirus

34
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True or False? When ear notching a pig, the right ear is the litter number, and the left ear is the individual number

True

35
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True or False? The coccygeal vein is a commonly used site for venipuncture in young pigs

False

36
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Tacking or temporary sutures are the best correction for what type of entropion?

Secondary

37
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Which two agents can cause Atrophic Rhinitis in Pigs?

Bordatella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida

38
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Big head

Due to infected head injuries

39
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Black Disease

Toxin causes liver necrosis

40
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Clostridium tetani

Recently castrated animals are at higher risk

41
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There is a live vaccine for this diease, but animals can be contagious for 8 weeks after!

Contagious Ecthyma

42
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What is another name for Pseudorabies?

Aujeskzy Disease

43
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When should castrations occur and why?

After 2 years to avoid straight limbs and osteoarthritis

44
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What did the piglets do for Mother's Day? (there is technically one correct answer but I will make sure you get credit for whatever one you put down!)

They threw a sowprize party!

45
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What is the standard of care when castrating a larger pig?

Suture closed the inguinal ring

46
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True or False? Group E Step infections most commonly present as fatal meningitis

False

47
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A three week old piglet presents with red skin, erosions at the coronary band, and brow scabby crusts and exudate. What is your top differential?

Greasy Pig Disease

48
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What is the causative agent of Eperythrozoonosis?

Mycoplasma suis

49
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You want to administer oral meds to a pig via a stomach tube. What must you do to insure you are in the stomach?

Estimate the tube length to the last rib and make sure you get to that point

50
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SMEDI is a clinical sign of which disease?

Leptospirosis

51
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Which is the definitive host for P. tenuis (the animal they really want to live in)

Deer

52
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Which site would be a good choice to collect a 7mL sample of blood?

Orbital Sinus

53
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Which disease in swine is reportable to the state vet?

Brucellosis

54
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Which urine collection method is the best option for culture in the equine patient?

Urinary catheterization

55
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What is an indication for performing arthrocentesis?

Synovial fluid analysis

56
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What is a potentially serious complication of thoracocentesis in the equine patient?

Pneumothorax

57
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What kind of disease can a transtracheal wash help to diagnose?

Respiratory disease

58
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What is the most reliable method of oral delivery in the horse

Nasogastric intubation

59
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What is a complication of an intramuscular injection?

Injection site abscess

60
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What is an important indication for external coaptation?

Reduce skin motion around a wound

61
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What is a complication of external coaptation?

Pressure necrosis

62
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Where can a "bean" of smegma be found?

The urethral fossa

63
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What is an indication for placing a subpalpebral lavage system?

Frequent placement of eye medication

64
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What does floating mean in equine patients?

Filing down the sharp points on the teeth

65
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Which method of anesthesia is preferred in the horse?

Standing anesthesia

66
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What is a concern when performing general anesthesia in the horse?

Recovery can be violent and result in injury

67
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What is the caslick surgery for?

To prevent uterine infections

68
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What is the causative agent of Atrophic Rhinitis?

Bordetella bronchiseptica

69
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What is the causative agent of Swine Dysentery?

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

70
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What is the causative agent of Pleuropneumonia?

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

71
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What is the causative agent of Glasser Disease?

Haemophilus parasuis

72
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What is the causative agent of Erysipelas?

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

73
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What two swine diseases present with GI symptoms such as diarrhea in neonatal swine?

Enteric Colibacillosis and Clostridium perfringens Type C enteritis

74
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What are the symptoms of Glasser Disease?

Fever, cough, lameness, depression

75
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What is the method of transmission of Exudative Epidermis?

Skin Wounds

76
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What is the method of transmission of Eperythrozoonosis?

Lice

77
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Swine dysentery affects what age group of swine?

Weaners

78
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What are the main clinical signs of pleuropneumonia?

Cyanotic extremities, thumps, fever, sudden death

79
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What does SMEDI stand for?

stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, infertility

80
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When did the US first experience outbreaks of Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus?

2013

81
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What is a feature of hog cholera?

Reproductive disease and neurologic piglets

82
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What is the causative agent of Transmissible Gastroenteritis?

Coronovirus

83
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Which ear vein is commonly used for small blood samples in swine?

Lateral auricular vein

84
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What is the most important complication of drawing blood form the crainal vena cava in swine?

Hitting the right vagus or phrenic nerves

85
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Which venous location allows for the largest sample size collection in swine?

Cranial vena cava

86
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What piece of equipment can help you to safely administer oral medications to adult swine?

Mouth speculum

87
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What is the preferred location for intramuscular injections according to Pork Quality Assurance Guidelines?

Lateral Cervical Muscles

88
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Where is an epidural performed in an adult sow?

lumbosacral junction

89
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Which teeth grow into tusks in adult male swine?

Permanent mandibular canine teeth

90
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What should be done with tusks every 10-12 months in swine?

Trimming with gigli wire

91
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What is the causative agent of pulpy kidney disease?

Clostridium perfringens Type D

92
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What is the causative agent of contagious ecthyma/

Pox virus

93
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Which disease does not have a vaccine available?

Toxoplasmosis

94
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Which disease is not zoonotic?

Bluetongue

95
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Which disease causes necrosis of the liver?

Clostridium novyi

96
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What is the causaitive agent of Caseous Lymphadenitis?

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

97
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Which is NOT a reason to perform a joint tap?

Obtain a sample for neurologic testing

98
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True or Fasle? Pleural fluid is produced by the cells that line the peritoneal cavity and can be examined for infection and neoplastic cells

False

99
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True or False? When performing a standing surgical procedure, IV sedation is enough for good restraint.

False

100
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What is an indication for flushing the nasolacrimal duct in a horse?

Excessive tear staining and discharge from the medial canthus