APES - Cumulative Review

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261 Terms

1
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When carbon dioxide levels were at 325 ppm, what was the approximate global temperature in degrees Celsius?

13.8

2
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If carbon dioxide levels hit 400 ppm, what do you estimate global temperature to be?

14.8° Celsius

3
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If the trend in global surface temperatures continues, what year do you estimate temperatures to become 15.0° Celsius?

2100

4
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Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere help...

Regulate temperatures near Earth's surface.

5
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Which of the following accurately describes anthropogenic impacts to the carbon cycle?

Humans combust fossil fuels, releasing previously stored CO₂ into the atmosphere.

6
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If population of the United States is 307,000,000 and approximately 50 billion bottles of water are consumed in the United States each year, how many bottles are consumed per capita?

160

7
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If there are 364,000 infants born every day and 152,000 people die each day, the net result is 212,000 new inhabitants on Earth each day. What is the approximate net gain of new inhabitants on Earth in one year?

77 million

8
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Which is the correct equation for photosynthesis?

Solar energy + 6 H20 + 6 CO2 → CH1206 + 6 02

9
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Which is the correct flow of energy in an ecosystem?

Producer → herbivore → carnivore → scavenger

10
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The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is 25 kg C/m²/year, and the energy needed by the producers for their own respiration is 30 kg C/m²/year. The gross primary productivity of such an ecosystem would be...

55 kg C/m²/year.

11
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An ecosystem has an ecological efficiency of 10 percent. If the tertiary consumer level has 1 kcal of energy, how much energy did the producer level contain?

1,000 kcal

12
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Which of the following represents alterations humans make to the water cycle?

Impervious surfaces alter aquifer recharge and surface runoff.

13
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Nitrogen fixation:

Bacteria convert ammonia into ammonium.

14
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Nitrification:

Ammonia is converted into nitrite and then nitrate.

15
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Assimilation:

Nitrogen is assimilated into plant tissues.

16
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Ammonification:

Decomposers use waste as a food source and excrete ammonium.

17
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Mineralization:

Organic matter is converted back into inorganic compounds.

18
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Climate is...

The average weather that occurs in a given region over a long period of time.

19
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Which of the following factors most directly results in a specific terrestrial biome?

Temperature, precipitation, and altitude.

20
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This terrestrial biome is characterized by cold winters and short growing seasons. The dominant plant life includes cone-bearing trees. Temperature in this region limits plant growth. Which biome fits this description?

The boreal forest.

21
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Which two terrestrial biomes are often used for agriculture because of high soil fertility?

Temperate grasslands and temperate seasonal forests.

22
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Which describes ecosystem services associated with freshwater wetlands?

Absorbing excess rainfall and filtering pollutants.

23
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Which describes predation?

One animal kills and consumes another animal.

24
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Which is an example of resource partitioning?

Wolves hunt at dawn and dusk and coyotes hunt at night.

25
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Which of the following best describes why the tropical rainforest and seasonal forests have significantly higher NPP's than other terrestrial ecosystems?

Higher temperatures and precipitation drive decomposition, adding nutrients for growing flora.

26
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Which statement describes the best possible habitat for a koala that is a species specialist?

The koala can only consume a single plant species, such as eucalyptus trees.

27
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Identify the type of diversity present if an area has a mixture of farms, pastures for cattle, abandoned farms, and forests with large trees.

Habitat diversity.

28
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Identify the type of diversity present if scientists observe that the white-tailed deer in colder locations have larger bodies compared to the deer living in Florida.

Genetic diversity.

29
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Which statement best interprets this data?

Community C has greater species evenness and richness than Community A.

30
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A cultural ecosystem service of Yellowstone National Park could best be described by which statement?

Scenic overlooks for hikers to enjoy.

31
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Which is an example of a provisional service?

Bees producing honey for human consumption.

32
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Which statement describes an ecosystem service associated with freshwater wetlands?

Wetlands absorb excess rainfall reducing flooding, filter pollutants from water, and provide critical breeding habitats for migratory birds.

33
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According to the theory of island biogeography...

When conservation areas are close to each other, more species will persist.

34
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According to the theory of Island biogeography, which island should have the highest number of species?

Large islands close to the mainland.

35
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Ecological tolerance is...

The abiotic conditions under which a species can survive, grow, and reproduce.

36
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The range of abiotic conditions and biotic conditions is known as the...

Realized niche.

37
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There is widespread agreement among scientists that Earth is in the _________ mass extinction due to human causes.

Sixth.

38
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Which is true about natural ecosystem disruptions?

Random disruptions have an irregular pattern, similar to hurricanes.

39
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A low-intensity fire might kill some plant species, but fire-adapted species may benefit resulting in an ecosystem...

Resistance.

40
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The intermediate disturbance hypothesis states that intermediate levels of disturbances will...

Increase species diversity.

41
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Ancient air bubbles in ancient ice allow scientists to determine...

Temperatures of the distant past based on oxygen molecules.

42
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Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

Thoroughbred racehorses have been bred for speed.

43
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Which process is random?

Birds from the mainland blown off course to an island.

44
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Which of the following statements about mutations is correct?

If mutations increase over time, evolution can occur.

45
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The cheetah's spot sizes changed in the next generation because of the reduction in genetic diversity due to the drastic reduction in population size, otherwise known as a...

Bottleneck effect.

46
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Speciation that occurs as a result of geographic isolation is called...

allopatric speciation.

47
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The Bt-corn is an example of...

Evolution through genetic modification.

48
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During primary succession...

Pioneer species dominate because of their ability to survive in little to no soil.

49
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Identify the correct sequence of succession events for a freshwater lake or pond.

Algae and aquatic plants colonize the body of water, sedimentary rocks erode into the basin causing the lake to become shallow, hundreds to thousands of years later turning into a terrestrial habitat.

50
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Indicator species could help identify which ofthe following ecosystem characteristics?

Pollution indicators based on amount of lichens found on tree.

51
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Keystone species tend to...

Provide an essential service.

52
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How many hectares are in 4,400 acres? (2.5 acres in 1ha)

1,760

53
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A fundamental niche is...

The abiotic conditions under which a species can survive, grow, and reproduce.

54
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Due to a drought, a lake dries into two small, independent lakes. Over time natural selection favors a different set of traits for a single species of fish found in both lakes. After a flood, the lakes are reconnected and fish populations rejoin but do not breed. Which process has occurred?

Allopatric speciation.

55
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When a beaver creates new habitat in an area, it is functioning as...

A keystone species.

56
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Which of the following characteristics makes generalist species more likely to thrive in a changing environment?

They have a wide range of tolerance and can tolerate a variety of environmental conditions.

57
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If a population of 300 deer increases to 400 deer, the percent change is...

33 percent.

58
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Which is an r-selected species?

Cockroaches.

59
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Which refers to the maximum growth potential of a population under ideal conditions with unlimited resources?

Intrinsic growth rate.

60
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In what year did the wolf population dramatically decrease due to a canine virus?

1980.

61
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The graph illustrates

Population oscillations.

62
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Which of the following is best supported by the graph of wolves and moose on Isle Royale from 1959 to 2019?

There is a time delay between the fall of the wolf population and the rise of the moose population.

63
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If a population of 10,000 has 300 births, 200 deaths, 50 immigrants and 60 emigrants, what is the populating growth rate?

0.9 percent.

64
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If a country's population growth rate is 5 percent, what is the country's doubling time?

14 years

65
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Which combination of factors leads to a dramatic increase in total population during Stage 2: Industrializing of the demographic transition model?

Large difference between birth rates and death rates due to improved technology and access to health care.

66
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Which of the following accurately shows how to find the doubling time for Country X given the following information. Country X has a total population of 345,000 individuals. There are 7,500 births, 6,5000 deaths. Net immigration is 3,000 individuals.

70/1.159

67
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What are two reasons for the rapid growth of the human population over the past 8,000 years?

The advent of agriculture and access to technology.

68
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Which country's age structure diagram shows the most stability?

The United States.

69
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Examining Nigeria's population structure, we see that....

It is growing rapidly.

70
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When is the population size both large and stable?

Stage 4.

71
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Which of the following best describes why the population is stable in Stage 1?

Birth rates and death rates are relatively equal, causing there to be little changes to the population.

72
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When is the population growing most rapidly?

Between Stages 2 and 3.

73
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If a developing nation quickly reduces its growth rate to 0 percent, its population would...

Level off.

74
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A country with a large, relatively affluent population that is technologically advanced will most likely...

Have a large environmental impact.

75
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If a country has a negative net migration rate and low total fertility rate, what can we say about its population?

Its population is falling.

76
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At present, the size of Earth's human population is closest to...

8 Billion.

77
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Which of the statements below is supported by the graphs?

P. aurelia was generally able to outcompete P. caudatum following Day 5 in high-food supply environments.

78
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Which statement best supports why the population size eventually evens out at the carrying capacity (K)?

Density dependent factors limit population growth as there are insufficient resources.

79
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Exponential growth models are most likely to be experienced by which of the following populations?

R-selected species living in a new environment.

80
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Which of the following best describes the life history strategy of Type I species?

Parents expend a lot of energy providing parental care to offspring which generally survive.

81
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Which of the following correctly describes characteristics of an r-selected species?

Produce many offspring that are typically small.

82
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Why are K-selected species more likely to be affected by invasive species than r-selected species?

K-selected species may utilize the same resources as an invasive species, but their population may be unable to grow and exploit the resource like an invasive species can.

83
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The Earth's plates are in constant motion because...

Circulation in Earth's mantle causes oceanic plates to spread.

84
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Which is associated with seafloor spreading?

Divergent plate boundaries.

85
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Measured on the Richter scale, an earthquake with a magnitude of 6.0 is how many times greater than an earthquake with a magnitude of 3.0?

1,000

86
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Worldwide, earthquakes typically occur...

Many times each day.

87
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Volcanoes are likely to be found in an area where tectonic plates are...

Converging and diverging.

88
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Plate movement occurs in which part of Earth's crust?

Lithosphere.

89
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Which processes are involved in the formation of sedimentary rock?

Erosion, transport and compression.

90
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Fossils are most likely found in...

Sedimentary rock.

91
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Acid precipitation can cause...

Chemical weathering.

92
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Which type of soil allows the most water to infiltrate?

Loam.

93
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Soil found in tropical rain forests is generally...

Nutrient poor.

94
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The soil layer most similar to the parent material is the...

C horizon.

95
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Which item contributes to soil formation?

Composting.

96
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Identify the correct percentage of sand, silt, and clay for clay loam.

Sand 40%, silt 40%, clay 20%.

97
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Which is one way to positively impact watersheds?

Planting trees.

98
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The Hubbard Brook experiment showed that...

Deforestation increases nutrient runoff.

99
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The Chesapeake Bay Action Plan outlined a series of goals to reduce impacts and clean up the waters which included...

An increase to the crab population.

100
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In which layer of Earth's atmosphere does the ozone layer appear?

Stratosphere.