1/99
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai | Chat |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
A near miss in radiation therapy treatment delivery is defined as:
a harmful event that was caught prior to the delivery of treatment.
Well-differentiated tumors are generally:
Benign
If a patient receives an total dose of 5 Gy using a field size of 8 cm x 13 cm, what is the equivalent square field size?
a) 9.9 cm
b) 10.4 cm
c) 2.5 cm
d) 10.6
a
Percentage depth dose curve (PDD) is dependent on all of the following factors except for:
SAD
What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for one third of the brain?
60 Gy
According to the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging system, T1b glottic cancer involves:
both vocal cords
Intrathecal drug injections are administered through:
the spinal cord
Ipsilateral means:
the same side of the body.
The treatment of choice for non-small cell lung cancer is:
surgery
Informed consent should be signed prior to the patient receiving:
any procedure
Tongue immobilization can be accomplished with:
cork
Tumors arising from the mesenchymal cells are:
sarcomas
_________ are drugs used to reduce cerebral edema.
Corticosteroids
The purpose of an excisional biopsy is to:
remove the entire tumor and any local spread.
When a patient is treated with a source to axis distance (SAD) of 12 cm, what would the source to surface distance (SSD) be?
a) 100cm
b) 88cm
c) 112cm
d) 108cm
b
Clinically significant weight loss is defined as a patient losing _____ or more of their body weight.
a)5%
b)15%
c)10%
d)20%
c
The intensity of a photon beam decreases rapidly with increasing distance because of:
inverse square law
When reviewing a transverse slice, what directional terms orient the image?
Anterior/Posterior and Right/Left.
Hounsfield units measure:
a) density
b)contrast
c)resolution
d)attenuation
d
Cerrobend blocks are made from all of the following materials, except for:
a)cadmium
b)bismuth
c)tin
d)indium
d
At the level of Dmax, the backscatter factor is:
TAR
The spinal cord is about 25 cm shorter than the vertebral column, usually ending near the level of:
L1-L2
Which of the following cell types is the most radiosensitive?
a)nerve cells
b)parenchymal cells
c)endothelial cells
d)basal cells
d
A common screening technique for prostate cancer is:
digital rectal exam
Supraclavicular lymph nodes are treated to what depth?
3cm
A radiation therapist who is 37 years old should not have a lifetime effective dose exceeding:
(10 mSv times age in years, or 1 rem times age in years.)
370 mSv
A pituitary adenoma is a:
a)carcinoma
b)sarcoma
c)benign tumor
d)glioma
c
The most common side effect of patients being treated with external beam radiation therapy to the vagina is:
dyspareunia
If the hinge angle of two radiation beams is 150 degrees, what should the wedge angle be?
a) 15 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 45 degrees
d) 60 degrees
(0=90 degrees - hinge angle/2
Previous)
a
The IMRT x-ray output consistency should be checked on a(n) __________ basis.
monthly
Tolerance doses decrease as treatment volume:
increases
A prescription to be administered BID indicates that dosing should occur:
twice a day
Etiological factors associated with anal canal cancer are:
a) high fiber diet
b) HPV
c) low fiber diet
d) colitis
b
A patient presents with a diastolic blood pressure below normal. The reading for this patient would be:
a) 140/80
b) 120/60
c) 140/60
d) 120/50
d
The four R's of radiobiology include all of the following, except for:
a) repopulation
b) reoxygenation
c) regeneration
d) repair
c
An example of a sterile procedure is:
a) insertion of an NG tube
b) a barium enema
c) insertion of a urinary catheter
d) a sigmoidoscopy
c
Which of the following is NOT used to identify patients for treatment?
a) verbal confirmation
b) photo ID
c) treatment field marks
d) wrist band
c
The interaction between an incident photon and an inner shell electron which transfers all the energy of the photon to the electron is called:
photoelectric effect
To determine the depth of the spinal cord from the posterior surface of the body, a 7 cm ring is placed on the patient's skin before the scan. On the film, the ring is measured at 8.2 cm. The resulting magnification factor is:
a) 1.85
b) 1.17
c) 0.85
d) 58.2
(divide the displayed size of the object by the actual size of the object.)
b
When treating a patient using the source to surface distance (SSD), the field size is defined:
a) at depth
b) at mid-plane
c) at the patients skin
d) at Dmx
b and c
If a field needs to be shifted 1 cm posteriorly, how should the table be moved?
1 cm anteriorly
What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for the whole liver?
30 Gy
The three major pathways of lymphatic drainage of the breast are:
internal mammary, transpectoral, axillary
A surgical report that indicates the presence of positive margins means that:
there is disease remaining
If an orthogonal pair is taken with the first angle at 215 degrees, what would the second angle be?
(degree + 90=orthogonal)
305 degrees
Which organization regulates the use of radioactive materials to ensure adequate protection of public health and safety?
a) center for devices and radiological health (CDRH)
b) food and drug administration (FDA)
c) the joint commission (TJC)
d) nuclear regulatory commission (NRC)
d
The radiation protection Quality Factor for x-rays is:
a) 1
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15
a
What are the energy values for Cobalt-60 decay?
1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV
_________ is an external landmark often used when setting up whole brain treatments.
the external acoustic meatus
A treatment prescription must contain all of the following except for:
a) setup instructions
b) total dose
c) orientation of treatment fields
d) fractionation
a
Forced shallow breathing can be accomplished with the _________ technique.
gating
As the field size increases, the percentage depth dose curve (PDD):
increases
which is the most radiosensitive stage of gestation?
a) fetal period
b) preimplantation
c) organogenesis
d) post emryonic
b
a keloid
scar overgrowth
Esophageal radiation field margins should include ___ above and below the tumor to account for nodular drainage.
a) 2cm
b) 4cm
c) 6cm
d) 8cm
c
A(n) __________ is used to prevent a hot spot at the junction of two treatment fields with a small hinge angle.
wedge
A whole body dose of 100-1000 cGy would cause symptoms from which syndrome?
a) somatic
b) hematopoietic
c) gastrointestinal
d) cerebrovascular
b
Once women declare pregnancy, the NCRP limits radiation exposure to the embryo or fetus to:
0.5 mSv
When preforming time out procedures, patient identity can be confirmed with:
an ID bracelet
Which of the following is not part of the oral cavity?
a) floor of mouth
b) retromolar trigone
c) base of tongue
d) lower gingiva
c
Shock caused by sepsis, deep anesthesia, or administration of contrast media is:
vasogenic shock
Nosocomial infections are spread:
a) through saliva
b) through sexual intercourse
c) in schools
d) in the hospital
d
Areas where the dose equivalent exposure is 0.1 rem/week are classified as:
controlled areas
The most common method for sterilization is:
heat
Permanent azoospermia may occur in men being treated for testicular cancer after what dose?
a) 0.1-0.3 Gy
b) 0.3-0.5 Gy
c) 1-2 Gy
d) 2-3 Gy
d
Myelopathy is a result of which part of the body receiving more than its tolerance dose?
spinal cord
The JRCERT is an example of a(n):
a) accrediting body
b) professional society
c) state agency
d) federal regulatory agency
a
A QA level 1 action item would require:
inspection, but treatment can continue
Mycosis fungoides is the most common form of:
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for the kidney?
23 Gy
A whole body dose of 1000-5000 cGy would result in what type of acute radiation syndrome?
a) hematopoietic
b) gastrointestinal
c) cerebrovascular
d) subcutaneous
b
The Ann Arbor staging system is used for staging:
Hodgkin's disease
The plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is:
coronal plane
What is the most common type of bladder cancer?
transitional cell carcinoma
Prophylactic cranial irradiation is indicated for which primary diagnosis?
small cell carcinoma
Screening for colorectal cancer includes:
a) carcinoembryonic test
b) digital rectal exam
c) prostate specific antigen test
d) fecal occult blood test
d
PPE should be worn when:
a) treating a patient
b) tattooing a patient
c) using a computer
d) recapping a contaminated needle
b
Gantry and collimator angle indicators have a ________ tolerance.
1 degree
Total body exposure to a dose of more than 10 Gy will result in which acute effect?
a) CNS syndrome
b) Prodromal syndrome
c) GI syndrome
d) Cerebrovascular syndrome
c
The Internal Treatment Volume (ITV) includes which of the following?
a) PTV and CTV
b) CTV) and GTV
c) PTV and GTV
d) PTV, CTV, and GTV
b
The most common histology for cancer of the brain is:
astrocytoma
Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which the patient has a reduced number of:
platelets
What is the most common breast cancer diagnosis?
invasive ductal carcinoma
Duke's staging is used for staging _______ cancer.
colorectal
Which organization is responsible for establishing suggested dose limits for safe practices within the United States?
a) National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NRCP)
b) Nuclear Regulatory Commission
c) American Registry of Radiologic technologists (ARRT)
d) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
a
A patient presenting with petechiae has signs of:
a) edema
b) bleeding
c) dyspnea
d) fever
b
Medication prescribed to be taken four times a day would be marked:
QID
Radiolucent contrast agents appear ________ on radiographs
dark
What is the most common dose-limiting toxicity for chemotherapeutic drugs?
myelosuppression
215 monitor units (MU) will be delivered during a 315 degree arc. How many MUs per degree will be delivered?
(MU/degrees)
0.68
What is the single most effective way of preventing the spread of infection?
washing your damn hands
Patients will begin to experience epilation after an initial dose of:
a) 1000 cGy
b) 2000 cGy
c) 3000 cGy
d) 4000 cGy
b
In individuals with nasal cavity and paranasal sinus cancer, the most commonly involved lymph node is the:
a) preauricular node
b) submental node
c) midjugular node
d) submandibular node
d
Tumor grade is determined by
differentiation
1 J/Kg is equal to:
1 Gy
A patient presenting with unilateral hearing loss and an enlarged cervical lymph node should be evaluated for suspected lesion relating to which primary diagnosis:
nasopharyngeal
The treatment area that includes the gross palpable tumor and surrounding volume of tissue containing subclinical disease is called:
a) GTV
b) CTV
c) PTV
d) ITV
b
5-flurouracil (5-FU) is what type of chemotherapy?
a) An alkylating agent.
b) A nitrosoureas.
c) An antimetabolite.
d) An antitumor antibiotic.
c
After total body exposure to radiation, the time when the patient has no symptoms is referred to as the:
a) prodromal phase.
b) manifest illness phase.
c) latent phase.
d) fallout phase.
c
A _________ can be used to compensate for an irregular skin surface.
bolus