Radiation Therapy Student Exam Practice test 1

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Last updated 8:52 PM on 8/5/26
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100 Terms

1
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A near miss in radiation therapy treatment delivery is defined as:

a harmful event that was caught prior to the delivery of treatment.

2
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Well-differentiated tumors are generally:

Benign

3
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If a patient receives an total dose of 5 Gy using a field size of 8 cm x 13 cm, what is the equivalent square field size?

a) 9.9 cm

b) 10.4 cm

c) 2.5 cm

d) 10.6

a

4
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Percentage depth dose curve (PDD) is dependent on all of the following factors except for:

SAD

5
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What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for one third of the brain?

60 Gy

6
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According to the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging system, T1b glottic cancer involves:

both vocal cords

7
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Intrathecal drug injections are administered through:

the spinal cord

8
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Ipsilateral means:

the same side of the body.

9
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The treatment of choice for non-small cell lung cancer is:

surgery

10
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Informed consent should be signed prior to the patient receiving:

any procedure

11
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Tongue immobilization can be accomplished with:

cork

12
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Tumors arising from the mesenchymal cells are:

sarcomas

13
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_________ are drugs used to reduce cerebral edema.

Corticosteroids

14
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The purpose of an excisional biopsy is to:

remove the entire tumor and any local spread.

15
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When a patient is treated with a source to axis distance (SAD) of 12 cm, what would the source to surface distance (SSD) be?

a) 100cm

b) 88cm

c) 112cm

d) 108cm

b

16
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Clinically significant weight loss is defined as a patient losing _____ or more of their body weight.

a)5%

b)15%

c)10%

d)20%

c

17
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The intensity of a photon beam decreases rapidly with increasing distance because of:

inverse square law

18
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When reviewing a transverse slice, what directional terms orient the image?

Anterior/Posterior and Right/Left.

19
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Hounsfield units measure:

a) density

b)contrast

c)resolution

d)attenuation

d

20
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Cerrobend blocks are made from all of the following materials, except for:

a)cadmium

b)bismuth

c)tin

d)indium

d

21
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At the level of Dmax, the backscatter factor is:

TAR

22
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The spinal cord is about 25 cm shorter than the vertebral column, usually ending near the level of:

L1-L2

23
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Which of the following cell types is the most radiosensitive?

a)nerve cells

b)parenchymal cells

c)endothelial cells

d)basal cells

d

24
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A common screening technique for prostate cancer is:

digital rectal exam

25
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Supraclavicular lymph nodes are treated to what depth?

3cm

26
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A radiation therapist who is 37 years old should not have a lifetime effective dose exceeding:

(10 mSv times age in years, or 1 rem times age in years.)

370 mSv

27
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A pituitary adenoma is a:

a)carcinoma

b)sarcoma

c)benign tumor

d)glioma

c

28
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The most common side effect of patients being treated with external beam radiation therapy to the vagina is:

dyspareunia

29
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If the hinge angle of two radiation beams is 150 degrees, what should the wedge angle be?

a) 15 degrees

b) 30 degrees

c) 45 degrees

d) 60 degrees

(0=90 degrees - hinge angle/2

Previous)

a

30
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The IMRT x-ray output consistency should be checked on a(n) __________ basis.

monthly

31
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Tolerance doses decrease as treatment volume:

increases

32
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A prescription to be administered BID indicates that dosing should occur:

twice a day

33
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Etiological factors associated with anal canal cancer are:

a) high fiber diet

b) HPV

c) low fiber diet

d) colitis

b

34
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A patient presents with a diastolic blood pressure below normal. The reading for this patient would be:

a) 140/80

b) 120/60

c) 140/60

d) 120/50

d

35
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The four R's of radiobiology include all of the following, except for:

a) repopulation

b) reoxygenation

c) regeneration

d) repair

c

36
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An example of a sterile procedure is:

a) insertion of an NG tube

b) a barium enema

c) insertion of a urinary catheter

d) a sigmoidoscopy

c

37
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Which of the following is NOT used to identify patients for treatment?

a) verbal confirmation

b) photo ID

c) treatment field marks

d) wrist band

c

38
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The interaction between an incident photon and an inner shell electron which transfers all the energy of the photon to the electron is called:

photoelectric effect

39
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To determine the depth of the spinal cord from the posterior surface of the body, a 7 cm ring is placed on the patient's skin before the scan. On the film, the ring is measured at 8.2 cm. The resulting magnification factor is:

a) 1.85

b) 1.17

c) 0.85

d) 58.2

(divide the displayed size of the object by the actual size of the object.)

b

40
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When treating a patient using the source to surface distance (SSD), the field size is defined:

a) at depth

b) at mid-plane

c) at the patients skin

d) at Dmx

b and c

41
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If a field needs to be shifted 1 cm posteriorly, how should the table be moved?

1 cm anteriorly

42
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What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for the whole liver?

30 Gy

43
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The three major pathways of lymphatic drainage of the breast are:

internal mammary, transpectoral, axillary

44
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A surgical report that indicates the presence of positive margins means that:

there is disease remaining

45
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If an orthogonal pair is taken with the first angle at 215 degrees, what would the second angle be?

(degree + 90=orthogonal)

305 degrees

46
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Which organization regulates the use of radioactive materials to ensure adequate protection of public health and safety?

a) center for devices and radiological health (CDRH)

b) food and drug administration (FDA)

c) the joint commission (TJC)

d) nuclear regulatory commission (NRC)

d

47
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The radiation protection Quality Factor for x-rays is:

a) 1

b) 5

c) 10

d) 15

a

48
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What are the energy values for Cobalt-60 decay?

1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV

49
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_________ is an external landmark often used when setting up whole brain treatments.

the external acoustic meatus

50
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A treatment prescription must contain all of the following except for:

a) setup instructions

b) total dose

c) orientation of treatment fields

d) fractionation

a

51
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Forced shallow breathing can be accomplished with the _________ technique.

gating

52
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As the field size increases, the percentage depth dose curve (PDD):

increases

53
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which is the most radiosensitive stage of gestation?

a) fetal period

b) preimplantation

c) organogenesis

d) post emryonic

b

54
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a keloid

scar overgrowth

55
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Esophageal radiation field margins should include ___ above and below the tumor to account for nodular drainage.

a) 2cm

b) 4cm

c) 6cm

d) 8cm

c

56
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A(n) __________ is used to prevent a hot spot at the junction of two treatment fields with a small hinge angle.

wedge

57
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A whole body dose of 100-1000 cGy would cause symptoms from which syndrome?

a) somatic

b) hematopoietic

c) gastrointestinal

d) cerebrovascular

b

58
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Once women declare pregnancy, the NCRP limits radiation exposure to the embryo or fetus to:

0.5 mSv

59
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When preforming time out procedures, patient identity can be confirmed with:

an ID bracelet

60
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Which of the following is not part of the oral cavity?

a) floor of mouth

b) retromolar trigone

c) base of tongue

d) lower gingiva

c

61
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Shock caused by sepsis, deep anesthesia, or administration of contrast media is:

vasogenic shock

62
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Nosocomial infections are spread:

a) through saliva

b) through sexual intercourse

c) in schools

d) in the hospital

d

63
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Areas where the dose equivalent exposure is 0.1 rem/week are classified as:

controlled areas

64
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The most common method for sterilization is:

heat

65
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Permanent azoospermia may occur in men being treated for testicular cancer after what dose?

a) 0.1-0.3 Gy

b) 0.3-0.5 Gy

c) 1-2 Gy

d) 2-3 Gy

d

66
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Myelopathy is a result of which part of the body receiving more than its tolerance dose?

spinal cord

67
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The JRCERT is an example of a(n):

a) accrediting body

b) professional society

c) state agency

d) federal regulatory agency

a

68
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A QA level 1 action item would require:

inspection, but treatment can continue

69
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Mycosis fungoides is the most common form of:

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

70
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What is the Tolerance Dose for 5% risk at 5 years (TD 5/5) for the kidney?

23 Gy

71
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A whole body dose of 1000-5000 cGy would result in what type of acute radiation syndrome?

a) hematopoietic

b) gastrointestinal

c) cerebrovascular

d) subcutaneous

b

72
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The Ann Arbor staging system is used for staging:

Hodgkin's disease

73
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The plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is:

coronal plane

74
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What is the most common type of bladder cancer?

transitional cell carcinoma

75
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Prophylactic cranial irradiation is indicated for which primary diagnosis?

small cell carcinoma

76
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Screening for colorectal cancer includes:

a) carcinoembryonic test

b) digital rectal exam

c) prostate specific antigen test

d) fecal occult blood test

d

77
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PPE should be worn when:

a) treating a patient

b) tattooing a patient

c) using a computer

d) recapping a contaminated needle

b

78
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Gantry and collimator angle indicators have a ________ tolerance.

1 degree

79
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Total body exposure to a dose of more than 10 Gy will result in which acute effect?

a) CNS syndrome

b) Prodromal syndrome

c) GI syndrome

d) Cerebrovascular syndrome

c

80
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The Internal Treatment Volume (ITV) includes which of the following?

a) PTV and CTV

b) CTV) and GTV

c) PTV and GTV

d) PTV, CTV, and GTV

b

81
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The most common histology for cancer of the brain is:

astrocytoma

82
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Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which the patient has a reduced number of:

platelets

83
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What is the most common breast cancer diagnosis?

invasive ductal carcinoma

84
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Duke's staging is used for staging _______ cancer.

colorectal

85
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Which organization is responsible for establishing suggested dose limits for safe practices within the United States?

a) National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NRCP)

b) Nuclear Regulatory Commission

c) American Registry of Radiologic technologists (ARRT)

d) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

a

86
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A patient presenting with petechiae has signs of:

a) edema

b) bleeding

c) dyspnea

d) fever

b

87
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Medication prescribed to be taken four times a day would be marked:

QID

88
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Radiolucent contrast agents appear ________ on radiographs

dark

89
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What is the most common dose-limiting toxicity for chemotherapeutic drugs?

myelosuppression

90
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215 monitor units (MU) will be delivered during a 315 degree arc. How many MUs per degree will be delivered?

(MU/degrees)

0.68

91
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What is the single most effective way of preventing the spread of infection?

washing your damn hands

92
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Patients will begin to experience epilation after an initial dose of:

a) 1000 cGy

b) 2000 cGy

c) 3000 cGy

d) 4000 cGy

b

93
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In individuals with nasal cavity and paranasal sinus cancer, the most commonly involved lymph node is the:

a) preauricular node

b) submental node

c) midjugular node

d) submandibular node

d

94
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Tumor grade is determined by

differentiation

95
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1 J/Kg is equal to:

1 Gy

96
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A patient presenting with unilateral hearing loss and an enlarged cervical lymph node should be evaluated for suspected lesion relating to which primary diagnosis:

nasopharyngeal

97
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The treatment area that includes the gross palpable tumor and surrounding volume of tissue containing subclinical disease is called:

a) GTV

b) CTV

c) PTV

d) ITV

b

98
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5-flurouracil (5-FU) is what type of chemotherapy?

a) An alkylating agent.

b) A nitrosoureas.

c) An antimetabolite.

d) An antitumor antibiotic.

c

99
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After total body exposure to radiation, the time when the patient has no symptoms is referred to as the:

a) prodromal phase.

b) manifest illness phase.

c) latent phase.

d) fallout phase.

c

100
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A _________ can be used to compensate for an irregular skin surface.

bolus