RATIO - Evals 2 Microbiology and Parasitology 2027

B. It promotes vasodilation and increase vascular permeability

The following statement/s is/are TRUE of the complement system:

A. Enhance phagocytic engulfment

B. It promotes vasodilation and increase vascular permeability

C. Causes loss of osmotic integrity and microbes to rupture

D. All of the choices are correct

D. C5b

Addition of this protein to C6C7C8C9 completes the formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)

A. C10

B. C3b

C. C5a

D. C5b

B. Does not confer long lasting protective immunity (D. Has a general response to invading pathogen)

Which of the following is TRUE of innate immunity?

A. Immune reaction is specific

B. Does not confer long lasting protective immunity

C. Immunologic memory is an essential component

D. Has a general response to invading pathogen

B. Acquired after antigen exposure

Which of the following is TRUE of adaptive immunity?

A. All of the choices are correct

B. Acquired after antigen exposure

C. Includes the first line of defense

D. Resistance is pre-existing

C. Eosinophilia

An 8y/o male constantly complained with abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhea, vomiting and bloating. If the physician is suspecting parasitism, His CBC may show:

A. Markedly increase lymphocytes

B. Decreased segmenters

C. Eosinophilia

D. Decreased WBC count

C. All of the choices are correct

Phagocytic cell activities include:

A. Survey tissue compartments for microbes

B. Extract immunogenic information

C. All of the choices are correct

D. Digest and eliminate microbes

D. C5 convertase helps in the production of anaphylatoxin C5a

True of the Classical Pathway:

A. Activated by lipopolysaccharides

B. Triggers the cellular production of factors B, D and properdin

C. MBL plays a major role in the pathway

D. C5 convertase helps in the production of anaphylatoxin C5a

C. All of the choices are correct

TRUE of Humoral Response:

A. Antibody mediated

B. Identified through antigens floating extracellularly

C. All of the choices are correct

D. B cells play a major role

C. Is not viral specific

Which of the following statements regarding interferons is correct?

A. All of the choices are correct

B. Interferons arise from viruses

C. Is not viral specific

D. Interferons produce inactive AVP

B. Fever and inflammation

Which of the following is/are part of the second line of defense?

A. Skin and hair

B. Fever and inflammation

C. Antibodies and phagocytosis

D. Peristalsis and perspiration

B. PAMPs

A macrophage recognizes a bacterium through the latter’s

A. All of the choices are correct

B. PAMPs

C. PRR

D. TLR

A. Potent anaphylatoxin

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding C3b?

A. Potent anaphylatoxin

B. Forms part of C5 convertase

C. Forms part of the three complement pathways

D. C3B is an opsonin

B. IgM

The first immunoglobulin produced in response to an infection is _________.

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgG

D. IgE

A. IgD

The antibody which is the major surface-bound immunoglobulin on mature B lymphocytes that have not yet encountered antigen is __________.

A. IgD

B. IgA

C. IgE

D. IgG

D. All of the choices are correct

The following statement/s is TRUE of MHC:

A. Associated in humans on chromosome 6

B. MHC molecules bind peptide antigens and present them to T cells.

C. Also called human leukocyte antigen

D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following statement/s describes an immune system?

A. It is composed of molecules, cells, organs, and systems.

B. Our response to an invading organism may depend on our exposure to it.

C. Every person has a unique immune system.

D. All of the choices are correct.

B. Chemotaxis, Adherence of microbe, formation of phagolysosome, digestion of microbe, discharge of waste

Which chronological process of phagocytosis is correct?

A. Chemotaxis, adherence, formation of residual body, ingestion of microbe, digestion of microbe

B. Chemotaxis, Adherence of microbe, formation of phagolysosome, digestion of microbe, discharge of waste

C. Formation of phagosome, chemotaxis, digestion of waste material, adherence

D. Adherence, formation of phagosome, chemotaxis ingestion of microbe, discharge of waste

D. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following is/are the protective function/s of antibodies?

A. Allows blockade of the active site of toxins

B. May enhance phagocytosis

C. It’s activity in the complement pathway can lead to cell lysis

D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following depicts the beneficial effect/s of fever in protecting the host from pathogens?

A. May stimulate immune reactions

B. Prevents release of iron stores from macrophages

C. Inhibits multiplication of temperature sensitive microorganisms

D. All of the choices are correct

A. Lymph nodes

Which of the following is/are considered secondary lymphoid tissues?

A. Lymph nodes

B. Thymus

C. Bone marrow

D. All of the choices are correct

A. Beta-lactamase

This virulence factor makes Staphylococcus aureus resistant to Penicillin.

A. Beta-lactamase

B. Panton-Valentine Leukocidin

C. Hyaluronidase

D. Protein A

B. It cannot hydrolyze hydrogen peroxide to produce water and oxygen.

A 5-year-old female was brought to your clinic because of rashes on her abdomen and torso area. The rashes are erythematous, pruritic, and form pustules. In some areas of the abdomen, the lesions appear to be fluid-filled, measuring at least 5.0 cm in widest diameter. A sample from the lesion was collected and submitted to the laboratory for diagnostic tests. Gram stain revealed round, gram-positive organisms arranged in grape-like clusters. The following are true regarding the diagnostic tests for the causative agent, EXCEPT:

A. It can ferment sugar.

B. It cannot hydrolyze hydrogen peroxide to produce water and oxygen.

C. Cefoxitin disc test is recommended for susceptibility testing.

D. It produces beta-hemolysis in blood agar plates.

A. Cytolysis

High concentration of Panton-Valentine Leukocidin on the surface of polymorphonuclear leukocytes will result in:

A. Cytolysis

B. Autophagy

C. Apoptosis

D. Mutation

A. This is caused by the release of an exotoxin that is lethal to polymorphonuclear leukocytes by causing pore-formation on the cellular membrane.

A 10-day-old neonate was admitted to the neonatal ICU due to high-grade fever and lesions on her torso and back. Upon physical examination, you note erythematous, scarlatiniform rashes on the chest, abdomen, and back area, some of which exhibit scaling. When you stroke the skin on the affected areas, you notice that the skin "peels off." Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the disease entity?

A. This is caused by the release of an exotoxin that is lethal to polymorphonuclear leukocytes by causing pore-formation on the cellular membrane.

B. It is caused by a severe systemic reaction to certain drugs.

C. The toxins released by the causative agent act exclusively on the stratum granulosum of the epidermis.

D. Mortality rate is higher among children than among adults.

C. Catalyzes hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids resulting in cell lysis.

Sphingomyelinase C is a hemolysin that _______.

A. Demonstrates non-specific toxicity to other mammalian cells.

B. Lyses leukocytes in association with Panton-Valentine Leukocidin.

C. Catalyzes hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids resulting in cell lysis.

D. Disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessels.

A. Amino sugar

The serologic specificity of Lancefield classification of Streptococcus spp. is determined by _____.

A. Amino sugar

B. Liposaccharides

C. Lipoproteins

D. Amino acid

A. Binding of the superantigen to T cell receptor results to release of cytokines

True of Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins:

A. Binding of the superantigen to T cell receptor results to release of cytokines

B. SpeB carries a lysogenic phage

C. Act as superantigens which stimulate B cells

D. It is associated with necrotizing fasciitis and scarlet fever.

B. Fibrinolysin, transforms plasmin into plasminogen thereby promoting thrombolysis.

A 35-year-old male was brought to the ER due to multiple lesions with loss of sensation of his right hand. Four days prior to consult, patient was apparently well until he accidentally scraped his hand on a rough surface while working at a construction site. He did not wash the wounded site immediately and just continued finishing his work. He just washed his wound with tap water after his shift and just applied band-aid on the wound. Three days prior to consult, he noticed that his right hand became swollen and tender to touch. He did not report to work, as the slightest movement of his right hand caused severe pain. His wife applied boiled guava leaves on the lesion which provided some relief of pain. Two days prior to consult, the patient experienced high-grade fever and limited range of motion on his right hand. Patient took four doses of Paracetamol 500 mg/tab every four hours which provided relief of fever. Few hours prior to consult, the patient complained of loss of sensation on his right hand which prompted consultation at the ER. Physical examination findings show erythematous to violaceous dorsum of the right hand with no sensation. A foul-smelling, yellowish discharge is noted oozing from a maculopapular lesion at the area of the third metacarpal. More proximal to this lesion are two fluid-filled lesions. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the virulence factor of the PRIMARY infectious agent of this case?

A. The pyrogenic exotoxins act as a spreading factor since they can lyse the cement factor of collagen.

B. Fibrinolysin, transforms plasmin into plasminogen thereby promoting thrombolysis.

C. Streptolysin O is hemolytically active in oxidative state.

D. Protein A is its major virulence factor which inhibits the activation of the alternate complement pathway.

D. It is more contagious than Staphylococcal impetigo.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Impetigo contagiosa?

A. Dicloxacillin is the drug of choice.

B. It usually involves the abdominal area.

C. It is the most common skin infection among geriatric patients.

D. It is more contagious than Staphylococcal impetigo.

A. There is agglutination when a drop of blood is added to the serum of patient with Anti-DNase B and anti-hyaluronidase that is serially diluted.

A 50-year-old male came into your clinic due to lesions on his palms. One week prior to consult, the patient became unwell and had febrile episodes. This was accompanied by appearance of rashes all over his body which eventually resolved. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and scaling and excoriations on both palms. You suspect the patient of having toxic shock syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic results would describe a Streptococcal infection?

A. There is agglutination when a drop of blood is added to the serum of patient with Anti-DNase B and anti-hyaluronidase that is serially diluted.

B. There is growth upon inoculating in Mannitol Salt Agar.

C. There is formation of bubbles upon dropping hydrogen peroxide on the wet mount sample.

D. There is no inhibition of growth when a Bacitracin disc is added to the culture.

C. Growth of vegetative cells is due to the formation of exudative edema and hemorrhage.

The following statements are true regarding the pathogenesis of anthrax, EXCEPT:

A. The spores are spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system.

B. The organism can multiply freely in the host’s blood and tissues before and after death.

C. Growth of vegetative cells is due to the formation of exudative edema and hemorrhage.

D. Spores germinate in the tissue at the portal of entry.

C. A toxin-producing organism which produces its lethal toxin by combining the protective agent and the lethal factor

Bacillus anthracis is:

A. An encapsulated organism which produces its capsule via the pXO1 plasmid

B. A gram-positive, non-spore forming organism

C. A toxin-producing organism which produces its lethal toxin by combining the protective agent and the lethal factor

D. An encapsulated organism which has a capsule composed of poly-gamma-L-glutamic acid

A. Fecal-oral route

Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for anthrax infection?

A. Fecal-oral route

B. Inhalation of spores

C. Injection

D. Insect bite

D. Its spore is located terminally and is resistant to environmental changes.

A 58-year-old male farmer came to your clinic due to a lesion on the dorsum of his right hand. He noticed the lesion few weeks prior, which started as a pruritic and erythematous lesion. Upon inspection, you noticed that the lesion is ulcerating with a central black plaque. The following statements are true regarding the bacterial agent that caused the patient’s infection, EXCEPT:

A. It must be incubated in a mildly anaerobic environment to demonstrate its capsule in blood agar.

B. Pathogenic species belonging to the genus possess virulent plasmids

C. It can be definitively identified by inducing cell lysis using a bacteriophage

D. Its spore is located terminally and is resistant to environmental changes.

C. Cream-white colonies with surrounding opaque precipitates on egg yolk agar.

Gas gangrene is a serious disease entity caused by mixed infection of C. perfringens with various cocci and gram-negative organisms. Which of the following describes C. perfringens colonies in culture?

A. Small, grayish, round colonies demonstrating alpha-hemolysis in the inner zone and beta-hemolysis in the outer zone on blood agar after incubating in an unoxygenated environment at 37 °C.

B. Cream-white colonies demonstrating beta-hemolysis on blood agar after incubating in an oxygenated environment at 37 °C.

C. Cream-white colonies with surrounding opaque precipitates on egg yolk agar.

D. Small, transparent, glistening colonies exhibiting beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate.

D. Its theta toxin is a lecithinase compound with hemolytic and necrotic effects.

True of C. perfringens, EXCEPT:

A. It is an aerobic, non-spore-forming bacteria.

B. Its vegetative cells can ferment carbohydrates.

C. Antitoxins for C. perfringens should not be relied on when preventing the spread of infection.

D. Its theta toxin is a lecithinase compound with hemolytic and necrotic effects.

A. Alpha Toxin: causes edema and hemorrhage

The following toxins of C. perfringens are correctly paired with their functions and effects, EXCEPT:

A. Alpha Toxin: causes edema and hemorrhage

B. Beta Toxin: lethal necrotizing toxin

C. Theta Toxin: hemolytic and necrotic effects

D. Enterotoxin: induces intense diarrhea

B. Vegetative cells ferment carbohydrates present in tissue and produce gas

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathogenesis of gas gangrene?

A. Spore germination ensues at high oxidation-reduction potential.

B. Vegetative cells ferment carbohydrates present in tissue and produce gas

C. Spores reach tissue by inhalation.

D. There is decline in bacterial growth when tissue necrosis extends deeper.

D. Triple Sugar Iron Agar

A 28-year-old male comes into your clinic due to multiple lesions on his right hand. Upon inspection, you noticed that the lesions at the dorsum and second and third digits of his right hand are erythematous with raised borders. No purulent discharge is noted. Which of the following culture media will you utilize to confirm the identity of the etiologic agent?

A. Egg Yolk Agar

B. Mannitol Salt Agar

C. MacConkey Agar

D. Triple Sugar Iron Agar

B. Erysipeloid

Which of the following disease entities is caused by gram-positive, aerobic, non-spore-forming bacilli?

A. Erysipelas

B. Erysipeloid

C. Gas Gangrene

D. Cutaneous Anthrax

D. Has not been cultivated on agar and other bacteriologic media

Which is TRUE for the culture of Mycobacterium leprae?

A. May be inoculated into the scales of pangolins

B. Optimally grown on the fatpads of mice

C. Nerve biopsy samples are reliable specimens

D. Has not been cultivated on agar and other bacteriologic media

A. Most serious sequelae involve small nerve fibers

Which of the following is a property of Mycobacterium leprae?

A. Most serious sequelae involve small nerve fibers

B. Humans are the only known natural hosts of this species

C. Incubation period is short 1-2 months

D. Predilection for growing in the warm areas of the body such as the skin

B. Causes lesions which can be seen on the hands of fishkeepers called “ fish-tank granulomas "

Mycobacterium marinum :

A. Endemic in countries with tropical rain forests

B. Causes lesions which can be seen on the hands of fishkeepers called “ fish-tank granulomas "

C. Is transmitted via droplets from the nose where there is shedding of organisms in nasal secretions

D. Is the second most common mycobacterial infection in humans following tuberculosis

B. Lepromin skin test is negative

True of lepromatous leprosy:

A. Have very few acid-fast bacilli in skin lesions

B. Lepromin skin test is negative

C. Course is benign and non-progressive

D. Skin lesions are macular

D. Mycobacterium marinum

A 40 year-old female complains of small papules on her skin which subsequently acquire a purple hue and eventually convert into areas of chronically inflamed ulcers. She is a known aquarium hobbyist who loves to breed fish and crustaceans. The etiologic agent/s in this case must be:

A. Mycobacterium ulcerans

B. Mycobacteirum leprae

C. Mycobacterium bovis

D. Mycobacterium marinum

B. Mycobacterium ulcerans

Which of the following produces a toxin that diffuses from the site of infection killing surrounding cells in the skin?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B. Mycobacterium ulcerans

C. Mycobacterium marinum

D. Mycobacterium leprae

D. via nasal droplets

Which of the following is TRUE of the modes of transmission of Mycobacterium leprae?

A. via transfusion of contaminated blood

B. via contaminated water

C. generally via skin-to-skin contact

D. via nasal droplets

C. Mycobacterium ulcerans

An environmental bacteria that causes Bairnsdale ulcers:

A. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

B. Mycobacterium leprae

C. Mycobacterium ulcerans

D. Mycobacterium marinum

B. Infection follows after minor trauma in natural bodies of water or trauma from fish spines

Which of the following is TRUE of Mycobacterium marinum?

A. Drinking fresh or salt water is a mode of transmission

B. Infection follows after minor trauma in natural bodies of water or trauma from fish spines

C. Spreads from person to person

D. Eating infected fish

C. Skin infiltrates are helper T cells

In tuberculoid leprosy:

A. Nerve involvement is slow, symmetric

B. Cell mediated immunity is markedly deficient

C. Skin infiltrates are helper T cells

D. Lepromin skin test is negative

B. It is a common endogenous skin colonizer.

A 28-year-old female consulted your clinic due to a lesion on her right palm which she noticed one month prior to consult. The lesion is a hyperpigmented macule, approximately 6.0 cm in widest dimension, found near the base of her right thumb. No pain or pruritus is noted. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the causative agent of the lesion?

A. It appears as thick-walled, rhomboid cells containing ascospores in direct KOH mount.

B. It is a common endogenous skin colonizer.

C. It can grow in a medium that has a higher salt concentration.

D. It has a hyaline cell wall.

A. Trichosporon asteroides

Which of the following is considered as a common agent in causing White Piedra?

A. Trichosporon asteroides

B. Trichophyton rubrum

C. Piedraia hortae

D. Microsporum canis

A 21-year-old male consulted your clinic due to multiple hypopigmented patches on his back and nape area which started few months prior to consult. The following diagnostic results identify the causative agent of the infection, EXCEPT:

A. (+) growth in pure PDA.

B. (+) “Spaghetti-and-meatball” structures in direct KOH.

C. (+) pale yellow to white fluorescence of lesions in Wood Lamp.

D. (+) growth in SDA with Oxacillin and infused with Olive Oil.

C. Piedraia hortae

A 7-year-old female was brought to your clinic due to scalp itchiness. Upon physical examination, you noticed multiple hard, black gritty nodules on the hair shafts. A hair sample was submitted to the lab for direct KOH, which revealed multiple round to ovoid structures within a thick-walled rhomboid structure. Which of the following organisms is the etiologic agent of the case?

A. Trichophyton tonsurans

B. Trichosporon inkin

C. Piedraia hortae

D. Microsporum canis

A. It is caused by overgrowth of a common skin commensal

True of Pityriasis versicolor:

A. It is caused by overgrowth of a common skin commensal

B. It is a reportable disease of concern.

C. Lower turnover rate of squamous cells will result into lower prevalence of infection.

D. Its causative agent is lipophobic.

C. In pair cultures, cream-tan to tan-brown, filamentous colonies are seen when it is incubated at 25°C while round, blackish, shiny colonies are seen when it is incubated at 37°C.

A 43-year-old male consulted your clinic due to multiple lesions on his right forearm. The lesions appear as erythematous nodules on his right wrist and forearm, which extends to the right axillary region. Some of the lesions are ulcerated. No pain or tenderness noted upon palpation of the lesions. Which of the following diagnostic results is TRUE regarding the causative agent of this mycosis?

A. In histologic studies, the pathognomonic body has an eosinophilic central portion with radiating extensions of basophilic material.

B. Serologic studies provide significant results.

C. In pair cultures, cream-tan to tan-brown, filamentous colonies are seen when it is incubated at 25°C while round, blackish, shiny colonies are seen when it is incubated at 37°C.

D. Yeasts of this organism are frequently seen in direct KOH smear.

A. Commonly recovered from soil and decaying vegetation.

Sporothrix schenckii is ______.

A. Commonly recovered from soil and decaying vegetation.

B. Strictly a hyaline fungus.

C. Small and cigar-shaped in mold form.

D. Arranged in rosette pattern in yeast form.

C. The causative agent can grow in SDA agar with antibiotics when incubated at 37°C.

True of chromoblastomycosis, EXCEPT:

A. The causative agent appears as dark, spherical cells in direct KOH mount

B. It may produce elephantiasis

C. The causative agent can grow in SDA agar with antibiotics when incubated at 37°C.

D. It is not a communicable disease.

C. Cladophialophora carrionii

Which of the following organisms can cause cauliflower-like nodules with crusting abscess in the lower extremities when the infection is chronic?

A. Madurella mycetomatis

B. Wangiella dermatitidis

C. Cladophialophora carrionii

D. Sporothrix schenckii

D. Causative agents grow best at 37°C when cultured.

True of eumycetoma:

A. Madurella mycetomatis produces white granules.

B. It does not involve deep tissues.

C. The exudate is immune for bacterial infections.

D. Causative agents grow best at 37°C when cultured.

C. Red to black granules surrounded by abscess and necrotic debris.

A draining exudate is submitted to the laboratory for histopathologic studies. Which of the following will give you a hint that you are dealing with Madurella mycetomatis infection?

A. White granules surrounded by abscess and necrotic debris.

B. Pure black granules surrounded by abscess and necrotic debris.

C. Red to black granules surrounded by abscess and necrotic debris.

D. White to black granules surrounded by abscess and necrotic debris.

B. Fontana-Masson Method

This aids in demonstrating the dematiaceous cell walls of the causative agents of phaeohyphomycosis.

A. Gomori Silver Stain

B. Fontana-Masson Method

C. Periodic Acid Schiff

D. Lactophenol Blue

D. Large, septate, branched or unbranched, often swollen or toruloid (beaded) hyphae that may be accompanied by yeast cells

A tissue biopsy was submitted to the laboratory for histopathologic studies. The attending physician is considering phaeohyphomycosis. Which of the following microscopic descriptions will definitively describe the infection?

A. Central basophilic yeast cell surrounded by radiating extensions of eosinophilic material

B. Granuloma with sclerotic bodies within leukocytes or giant cells, which may show dematiaceous fungal elements.

C. Variable-colored granules surrounded by abscesses and necrotic debris.

D. Large, septate, branched or unbranched, often swollen or toruloid (beaded) hyphae that may be accompanied by yeast cells

D. Trichophyton schoenleinii

A 4-year-old boy was brought to your clinic due to pruritic lesions on his scalp. The mother started to notice the lesions three weeks prior to consult. She tried to wash the lesion with mild shampoo, which provided little relief of symptoms. On physical examination, you noted multiple patches on the scalp of the child with scales and crusts. Which of the following organisms is the MOST PROBABLE infectious agent responsible for this child’s symptoms?

A. Microsporum gypseum

B. Microsporum canis

C. Trichophyton tonsurans

D. Trichophyton schoenleinii

D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A skin-scraping sample was submitted to the laboratory for direct KOH mount and culture. You noted macroconidia with two to five cells separated by parallel cross-walls. Its distal portion is broad to spatulate. No microconidia seen. What is the species of the dermatophyte present in the sample?

A. Trichophyton mentagrophyte

B. Microsporum canis

C. Trichophyton rubrum

D. Epidermophyton floccosum

D. Species’ ability to reproduce sexually is lost when habitation evolves from human to soil.

True of dermatophytes, EXCEPT:

A. Morphology of asexual conidia is essential for species identification.

B. They are highly contagious.

C. They are classified based on their habitation.

D. Species’ ability to reproduce sexually is lost when habitation evolves from human to soil.

A. Asexual Spores

The morphology of these structures is important for species identification of dermatophytes.

A. Asexual Spores

B. Sexual Spores

C. Aerial Hyphae

D. Vegetative Hyphae

B. Primarily globose and arranged in grape-like clusters but may appear tear-shaped

A skin scraping specimen is submitted to the laboratory for further evaluation. Which of the following describes the microconidia of Trichophyton mentagrophytes?

A. Clavate- or peg-shaped formed along undifferentiated hyphae

B. Primarily globose and arranged in grape-like clusters but may appear tear-shaped

C. Thin-walled, smooth and cigar-shaped

D. Variable shaped (round to peg-shaped or elongated) formed along the hyphae or on short conidiophores

B. Trichophyton verucossum

Which of the following dermatophytes is zoophilic?

A. Trichophyton tonsurans

B. Trichophyton verucossum

C. Microsporum gypseum

D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A. is a hypersensitivity reaction.

Dermatophytid:

A. is a hypersensitivity reaction.

B. appears as pruritic patches on hands or any parts of the body distant to the site of infection.

C. contains the infecting fungal agent.

D. may not concomitantly be infected with bacteria.

B. Eggs

What is the infective stage of the etiologic agent of cysticercosis?

A. Larvae

B. Eggs

C. Microfilaria

D. Adult worms

C. Larva Currens: A. caninum

The following are the correct "skin manifestation / infection:causative agent" EXCEPT:

A. Chagoma: T. cruzi

B. Swimmer's Itch: S. mansoni

C. Larva Currens: A. caninum

D. Leopard Skin: O.volvulus

B. Timing of washing and replacement of bed linen

If there is an increasing cases of scabies in the community, which of the following should be included in the history taking and/or physical examination of an infected individual?

A. Skin assessment with pruritic, erythematous lesions on bony surfaces

B. Timing of washing and replacement of bed linen

C. History of recent use of a specific soap

D. History of atopic dermatitis in the family

D. It will not morph from one stage to another inside the mass.

Patient A, a 30-year-old male, sought consult due to palpable masses on his left shoulder. He has no history of limitation of movement, arm pain and swelling. He has 1 x 1 inch firm, moveable, nontender masses on his left shoulder. If a cestode is the causative agent, which of the following is TRUE about the pathogen?

A. It seldomly spread through unsanitary food preparation.

B. It has no suckers but with hooklets.

C. It can move from the deltoid region to the elbow.

D. It will not morph from one stage to another inside the mass.

B. The microfilaria of this nematode can be detected in the blood.

Patient A, a 30-year-old male, sought consult due to palpable masses on his left shoulder. He has no history of limitation of movement and arm pain and swelling. He has 1 x 1 inch firm, moveable, nontender masses on his left shoulder. Several tests were done in this patient. If the causative agent is O. volvulus, which of the following is TRUE:

A. This trematode spread through the bite of the vector black fly.

B. The microfilaria of this nematode can be detected in the blood.

C. This pathogen can migrate and exit from the eyes.

D. The mass is less likely to be comprised of an adult worm.

A. With nits on hair follicles

Which of the following cases most likely manifests with pediculosis? A 7 year-old child with:

A. With nits on hair follicles

B. With pruritic, erythematous, scaling lesion on interdigital spaces, inguinal and buttocks

C. Depigmentation on left shin and calf

D. Depressed scar on left earlobe

C. Albendazole

Patient B, 33 year old male, sought consult due to muscle pain and swelling on both biceps. His upper extremities are warm and tender to touch. Due to positive findings in his lab tests including the biopsy, he was diagnosed with Trichinellosis. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?

A. Surgical removal of the adult form from the infected site

B. It may resolve spontaneously.

C. Albendazole

D. Diethylcarbamazine

B. Thoroughly cooked a meat prior to intake

Patient B, a 33-year-old male, sought consult due to muscle pain and swelling on both biceps. His upper extremities is warm and tender to touch. Due to positive findings in his lab tests including the biopsy, he was diagnosed with Trichinellosis. He would have prevented such infection if he:

A. Avoided sharing towel with an infected individual

B. Thoroughly cooked a meat prior to intake

C. Wore long garments when traveling in endemic areas

D. Refrained from walking barefooted

D. All of the choices

Which of the following is TRUE about Trichinellosis?

A. The adult male and female stages mate inside the host.

B. The patient may have eosinophilia in peripheral blood smear.

C. Several muscles may be affected including the extraocular muscles.

D. All of the choices

C. Percutaneous entry of the parasite.

The racing larva can demonstrate an elongated dermal lesion in a human host and it may change location overtime. A person may acquire such infection through:

A. An inoculation of the parasite from the saliva of a vector

B. Skin-to-skin contact

C. Percutaneous entry of the parasite.

D. An intake of undercooked fish.

C. Causes “Fifth Disease”

Which of the following is TRUE of Human Parvovirus B19?

A. Largest of all DNA viruses

B. Causes exanthem subitum

C. Causes “Fifth Disease”

D. Largest of all RNA viruses

C. Preventive measures include an attenuated virus vaccine

Which of the following is TRUE of rubeola?

A. Rare under 6 months of age because of transplacental IgM

B. Has a wide range of extrahuman reservoirs

C. Preventive measures include an attenuated virus vaccine

D. Transmitted principally by direct contact with the maculopapular lesions

B. Associated stimulus for reactivation is exposure to ultraviolet light

True of HSV 1:

A. Re-exposure to the same virus causes the recurrence

B. Associated stimulus for reactivation is exposure to ultraviolet light

C. Presence of viral RNA after resolution of the infection causes reactivation

D. There is no associated reactivation

D. HSV-1

A 2 year-old child at the pediatric ward presents with fever, chills, difficulty in swallowing, presence of vesicular lesions on the buccal mucosa and painful gums. Even if this is your first time to see such a patient you know that the Herpes virus that most likely caused this condition must be:

A. HSV-2

B. HHV-6

C. HHV-7

D. HSV-1

D. Varicella

A previously healthy 3 year-old boy develops a classic viral childhood illness presenting with fever, lethargy, and loss of appetite. On physical exam, you take note of characteristic fluid-filled sacs and open blisters on the surfaces of his lower extremities. When you turn your attention to his trunk you see scabs and pustules. This must be a case of:

A. Herpes simplex 1

B. Variola

C. Herpes zoster

D. Varicella

A. A core of single-stranded linear DNA

Which of the following is NOT a structural element of Herpes viruses?

A. A core of single-stranded linear DNA

B. Nucleocapsid

C. Envelope

D. Tegument

C. Herpes zoster

A male construction worker developed multiple, painful and erupted vesicles 3 days prior to consultation with a dermatologist. The lesions were noted to follow a linear distribution along the area of the umbilicus and further associated with febrile episodes and body weakness. This must be a case of:

A. Herpes simplex 1

B. Variola

C. Herpes zoster

D. Varicella

B. Cause molluscum contagiosum, an infection which can be transmitted by fomites

Poxviruses:

A. Are unique because their entire multiplication cycle takes place in the nucleus

B. Cause molluscum contagiosum, an infection which can be transmitted by fomites

C. Are non enveloped, double stranded DNA viruses

D. Exhibit specificity for the nucleus of infected cells

D. Subacute sclerosing encephalitis

What is the most dreaded, late complication observed in cases of Measles?

A. Anencephaly

B. Giant cell pneumonia

C. Otitis media

D. Subacute sclerosing encephalitis

D. HHV-2

A commercial sex-worker complains of painful urination, and multiple painful vesicles on her genitalia, perineum, and buttocks. She took note of these symptoms after having sexual intercourse with her new boyfriend whom she met at a party. Etiologic agent in this case must be:

A. HSV-1

B. HHV-1

C. HHV-6

D. HHV-2

A. Condylomata acuminata

Papillomaviruses are the etiologic agents of :

A. Condylomata acuminata

B. Exanthem subitum

C. Erythema infectiosum

D. Molluscum contagiosum

D. Chickenpox

Shingles is a reactivation form of infection that is caused by the same virus, and that infection is:

A. Genital herpes

B. Gingivostomatitis

C. Fever blisters

D. Chickenpox

A. Rubeola

A little girl presents with redness of the eyes, a runny nose, and fever. The fever persisted and is associated with the appearance of Koplik’s spots on the lateral buccal mucosa. It is followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash which starts from the forehead spreading down to the trunk and then the lower extremities. This must be a case of:

A. Rubeola

B. Roseola infantum

C. Rubella

D. Exanthem subitum

A. HHV-1: Herpes Simplex Virus 1

There are several members included in the Herpes family of viruses. Which among the following officially designated viruses is CORRECTLY matched with its common name?

A. HHV-1: Herpes Simplex Virus 1

B. HHV-2: Varicella Virus

C. HHV-4: Roseola Virus

D. HHV-3: Zoster Virus

A. Lesions are described as a unilateral vesicular eruption limited to the skin innervated by a single sensory ganglion

True of Herpes zoster:

A. Lesions are described as a unilateral vesicular eruption limited to the skin innervated by a single sensory ganglion

B. Occurs only in children

C. A reactivation form of infection with the VZV that has become latent in the skin

D. Occurs in persons who have antibodies against the HSV

A. Virus can be isolated from the urine and synovial fluids

Which of the following is TRUE of German Measles?

A. Virus can be isolated from the urine and synovial fluids

B. There are no associated congenital defects when a non-immune female is infected during the 4th month of gestation

C. Caused by the Rubeola virus

D. Caused by a virus which is transmitted from the vesicles of the skin lesions

A. Both are preventable by vaccination

Similarities between Rubeola and Rubella:

A. Both are preventable by vaccination

B. Both have animal reservoirs of infections

C. Both are classified as DNA viruses

D. Both are transmitted through contact with the vesicular rashes

D. Absence of lymphadenopathy

Which of the following is NOT a feature of human Monkeypox infections?

A. Produces a vesicular rash which can look like a blister, pus-filled bump or open sore or scabs

B. Effective vaccines are available

C. Transmission can occur directly from person to person

D. Absence of lymphadenopathy

C. Enveloped viruses with linear double-stranded DNA

True of Herpesviruses:

A. Enveloped viruses with linear single-stranded DNA

B. Naked viruses with circular double-stranded DNA

C. Enveloped viruses with linear double-stranded DNA

D. Naked viruses with circular single-stranded DNA

B. Transmission is promoted by direct exposure to secretions containing the virus

Which of the following is TRUE about Herpes simplex?

A. Humans and monkeys are reservoirs

B. Transmission is promoted by direct exposure to secretions containing the virus

C. Are not associated with lifelong persistent infections

D. Grow slowly and are non-cytolytic