Module 6: Antigens & Pathogens in Metabolic Chaos Flashcards

Flashcards covering the key concepts from the lecture notes on antigens and pathogens.

How much do the bacterial cells inhabiting us weigh?

The same as our brain, about three pounds

Name five functional assessments used in Functional Diagnostic Nutrition

Stress and Hormone Panel, Metabolic Wellness Profile, Mucosal Barrier Assessment, GI MAP, and Food Sensitivity Screenings

Name the systems in which balance and normal function are restored

Hormone, Immune, Digestion, Detoxification, Energy Production, and Nervous Systems

When should GI Pathogen Screening be considered?

History of foreign travel or food poisoning and heavy antibiotic use

What does a positive Indican indicate?

Maldigestion

What therapies are guided by a positive Indican?

Support digestion, protein intake, and mucosal barrier repair

What does either the presence of microorganisms that are normally present in lower/higher concentrations OR the presence of microorganisms that are not normally present signal?

Loss of homeostasis

What are the two processes required for accurate measurement of DNA?

Amplification and Hybridization

What role do commensal bacteria play in human health?

Commensal bacteria extract nutrients and energy from our diets, maintain gut barrier function, produce vitamins, and protect against colonization by potential pathogens

What kind of bacteria is Bacteroides fragilis?

Gram-negative species of the Bacteroidetes phylum

What role does Bifidobacterium spp. play?

Promotes healthy digestion, pH levels, and immune function; helps to prevent overgrowth of opportunistic bacteria and fungi/yeast; thrives on a wide variety of prebiotic fibers

What kind of bacteria is Enterococcus spp.?

Gram-positive genus of lactate producing bacteria in the Firmicutes phylum

When is Enterococcus spp. more problematic?

When elevated, may be associated with reduced digestive capacity, constipation, and SIBO

What kind of bacteria is Escherichia spp.?

Gram-negative genus in the Proteobacteria phylum

When is Escherichia spp. more problematic?

When elevated, may indicate increased intestinal inflammation; produce pro-inflammatory LPS

What role does Lactobacillus spp. play?

Promotes healthy digestion, pH levels, and immune function; helps to prevent overgrowth of opportunistic bacteria and fungi/yeast

When is Lactobacillus spp. more problematic?

Elevated levels associated with reduced digestive capacity, and excessive intake of carbohydrates; low levels associated with low carbohydrate or high salt intake, and reduced mucosal health

What kind of bacteria is Clostridium spp.?

Gram-positive genus in the Firmicutes phylum

When are Clostridium spp. levels more problematic?

Elevated levels are associated with reduced digestive capacity and constipation; low levels are associated with insufficient fiber intake

What kind of bacteria is Enterobacter spp.?

Gram-negative genus in the Proteobacteria phylum

When is Enterobacter spp. more problematic?

Produce pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels are associated with increased intestinal inflammation; low levels are associated with reduced mucosal health

What role do Good Bacteria play?

Promote mucosal barrier integrity, support and balance the immune system, support the colonization of other “good” bacteria, convert food into other beneficial products, and produce SCFA

What role do Bad Bacteria play?

Produce pro-inflammatory LPS, increasing inflammation and gut permeability

What does Bacteroidetes phylum consist of?

Consists of gram-negative bacteria

What does Firmicutes phylum consist of?

Consists of gram-positive bacteria

When is Bacillus spp. more problematic?

Can be associated with food poisoning, causing nausea, vomiting and diarrhea; elevated levels associated with reduced digestive function, SIBO, and constipation

When are Enterococcus faecalis & Enterococcus faecium more problematic?

May be implicated in endocarditis, surgical wound infections, chronic fatigue and UTIs; elevated levels associated with low HCl, reduced digestive function, PPI use, SIBO, and constipation

When is Morganella spp. more problematic?

May produce histamine; produces pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels associated with increased GI inflammation, diarrhea, and SIBO

When are Pseudomonas spp./Pseudomonas aeruginosa more problematic?

Some strains may produce toxins that can damage cells; produce pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels associated with increased inflammation, abdominal cramping and loose stools

When are Staphylococcus spp./Staphylococcus aureus more problematic?

Some strains may produce toxins that contribute to loose stools and diarrhea; elevated levels associated with reduced digestive capacity and increased intestinal inflammation

When are Streptococcus spp. more problematic?

Elevated levels associated with intestinal inflammation, loose stools, low HCl, reduced digestive capacity, SIBO, PPI use, constipation, and PANDAS

When is Citrobacter spp./Citrobacter freundii more problematic?

Produces pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels associated with increased intestinal inflammation, respiratory and urinary infections, autoimmune flares, and the development of autoimmune disease

When are Klebsiella spp./Klebsiella pneumoniae more problematic?

Produce pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels associated with bloating, abdominal pain, diarrhea, increased gut inflammation, mercury toxicity, autoimmune flares, and the development of autoimmune disease

When is Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis more problematic?

Elevated levels associated with increased intestinal inflammation, autoimmune flares, and the development of autoimmune disease

When is Prevotella copri more problematic?

Elevated levels associated with reduced digestive capacity, a high starch diet, autoimmune flares, and the development of autoimmune disease

When are Proteus spp./Proteus mirabilis more problematic?

Produce pro-inflammatory LPS; elevated levels associated with increased intestinal inflammation, loose stools, diarrhea, bladder and kidney infections, autoimmune flares, and the development of autoimmune disease

What is Insufficiency Dysbiosis characterized by?

Characterized by an overall pattern of depletion that promotes greater risk of intestinal infections, hyper-permeability of the gut, and compromised immune function

What is Inflammatory Dysbiosis characterized by?

Characterized by the presence of pro-inflammatory pathogens, elevated normal flora and opportunistic organisms

What is Digestive Dysfunction Dysbiosis?

When digestive dysfunction alters the microbiome d/t hypochlorhydria, insufficient bile acids, pancreatic insufficiency, reduced absorption, and/or compromised gastrointestinal motility

What are the consequences of a weakened/dysbiotic host?

Adverse alterations in gut pH and in digestion & absorption, maldigestion and malabsorption of nutrients produce own problems, retention of other organisms that were normally rapidly expelled, toxic condition from pathogens’ metabolic byproducts, disruption of intestinal mucosal barrier function, hyperpermeability, immune dysfunction, autoimmune conditions

Why is it important to control the concentration of fungi, Candida albicans?

Often harmless in small amounts; important to control its concentration; correct the causes and effects of its proliferation (seek primary condition)

What is Candida spp./Candida albicans?

Opportunistic fungus that is part of the normal gut flora; can be pathogenic to immunocompromised clients

Elevated levels of Geotrichum spp. are associated with what?

bronchial/respiratory infections, recent antibiotic use, hypochlorhydria, excess intake of dietary sugars, starches and fungi, pathogenic overgrowth of opportunistic bacteria, and parasitic infections

What is Microsporidium spp.?

A group of obligate parasitic fungi transmitted via water, domesticated and wild animals

Elevated levels of Rodotorula spp. are associated with what?

Catheters, localized skin infections, prosthetic joint infections, ocular, peritoneal and meningeal infections, recent antibiotic use, hypochlorhydria, excess intake of dietary sugars, starches and fungi, pathogenic overgrowth of opportunistic bacteria, and parasitic infections

What does a blood test do in determining Candida overgrowth?

Checks for IgG, IgA, and IgM antibodies; reflects an activated immune response to acute or chronic infections

What does a stool test do in determining Candida overgrowth?

Checks for the Candida antigen, as part of a comprehensive stool analysis. Often significant antigen levels, since Candida part of commensal gut population

When does IgM increase?

Increase at the beginning of an infection

When does IgG develop?

Develop later, indicate past or prolonged infection

Where is IgA present?

Present almost exclusively in mucous membranes; when in blood, indicates an ongoing infection

What does Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) do to blood and bone marrow?

Lymphocytosis

What are the symptoms of Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)?

Fatigue, fever, swollen lymph nodes (neck), inflamed throat, enlarged spleen, rash, swollen liver

What is D.R.E.S.S. for Health Success® Program described as?

The ultimate opt-in self-care health model

What are the stages of infection?

Invading microorganisms tend to morph into various stages from egg and larvae to adult and cystic forms

What are the properties of Blastocystis hominis?

Disrupts the immune system and can cause systemic issues; loves to hang out with H. pylori; can be a difficult pathogen to eliminate

What are the properties of Chilomastix mesnili?

Considered a non-pathogenic flagellate and may not cause symptoms

What are the properties of Cyclospora spp.?

Goes through its lifecycle intracellularly; acute phase usually lasts about six weeks and is self-limiting; can become chronic

Elevated levels of Dientamoeba fragilis are associated with what?

Headaches, dizziness, itchy skin, skin rashes, irritability, weakness, fever, other parasitic infections, suppressed immunity, dysbiosis

Elevated levels of Endolimax nana are associated with what?

IBD, IBS, gastritis, eczema, vaginitis, malabsorption, brain fog, and chronic fatigue; implicated in the development of arthritis, osteoporosis, collagen related diseases, RA, and other autoimmune conditions

Elevated levels of Entamoeba coli are associated with what?

Dysbiosis and pathogenic co-infections, particularly E. histolytica

What are the properties of Pentatrichomonas hominis?

Irritates intestinal mucosa and is similar to Blastocystis hominis in its potential to have far reaching impacts; elevated levels associated with diarrhea, reactive arthritis, and potentially other extra-intestinal symptoms

What are the properties of Ancylostoma duodenale & Necator americanus (hookworms)?

Early symptoms are itching and a localized rash where the larvae penetrated the skin; heavy infections may present with abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, anemia, and loss of appetite

What are the properties of Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)?

Pulmonary or even severe GI symptoms; can cause intestinal and biliary tract obstruction and may lead to abdominal surgical emergencies

What are the properties of Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)?

A whipworm known to cause mild to moderate symptoms in individuals via fecal-oral transmission of contaminated produce or person-to-person contact

What are the properties of Taenia spp. (tapeworm)?

Individuals are usually asymptomatic or have mild symptoms; passage of pieces of tapeworm can cause discomfort

What are the symptoms of H. pylori?

Heartburn/reflux, upper abdominal pain, indigestion, belching, gastritis, duodenal/peptic ulcers, carcinoma, headaches, constipation, nausea, acne, halitosis, undigested food in stool, need for digestive enzymes, chronic dysfunction

What are the names of H. pylori & Virulence Factors?

cagA (cytotoxin-associated gene A), vacA (vacuolating cytotoxin gene A), BabA (Blood group antigen binding adhesin), Cag PAI (Cag pathogenicity island), DupA (Duodenal ulcer-promoting gene A), IceA (Induced by Contact with Epithelium A), OipA (Outer Inflammatory Protein A)

What is important to know about Bacterial Pathogens?

The presence of a pathogen doesn’t necessarily indicate disease; pathogens are more likely to cause disease when there are other vulnerabilities present; presence of pathogens can create an environment which promotes the overgrowth of other opportunistic organisms, excess inflammation, and increased gut permeability

What are the properties of Campylobacter?

Sources: poultry, red meat, and shellfish; unpasteurized milk, contaminated water; elevated levels associated with fever, malaise, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea; chronic infection implicated in the development of Guillain-Barré syndrome

What are the properties of C. difficile, Toxins A and B?

Toxins released by C. diff cause inflammation and damage to the GI lining; mild and moderate cases crowd out quite readily with high doses of Saccharomyces boulardii; check on levels of bifidobacteria when C. diff is present; lower levels of bifidobacteria can allow Clostridium species to proliferate

What are the properties of EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli) & Escherichia coli 0157?

Symptoms of an acute infection can last up to one week; implicated in hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

What are the properties of Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)/Shigella?

Binds to and enters intestinal cells causing severe structural damage; this strain produces no toxins and is usually self-limiting; elevated levels associated with profuse diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and high fever

What are the properties of Enterotoxigenic E. coli LT/ST?

Colonizes the small intestine and produces the two toxins: heat labile (LT) and heat stable (ST); both toxins cause cell lining to secrete excessive fluid, producing similar symptoms; often transient and resolves within 4-7 days but can last up to 3 weeks; elevated levels associated with traveler’s diarrhea

What are the properties of Salmonella?

Often transient and self-limiting but systemic infections may require antibiotic treatment; source: fecal contamination of poultry products, meat, dairy and raw vegetables

What are the properties of Vibrio cholerae?

Many strains are non-pathogenic; the toxigenic strains 01 and 0139 cause cholera; source: fecal contamination of foods; infections can be asymptomatic or cause mild symptoms

What are the properties of Yersinia enterocolitica?

Symptoms usually appear 4-7 days after exposure; proteins very similar in shape to TSH receptors so this can be a factor in some autoimmune thyroid conditions; elevated levels associated with bloody diarrhea, fever, vomiting and abdominal pain

What are the properties of Cryptosporidium?

Infection usually lasts 2-3 weeks and is self-limiting; can become chronic and lead to on-going digestive symptoms, including constipation; very invasive intracellular parasite

What are the properties of Entamoeba histolytica?

Can bore into the intestinal wall and migrate to the liver, lungs, brain, and other parts of the body; can be a very serious infection

What does a DSL GI-MAP Intestinal Health Markers include?

Bacterial, Parasitic, Viral Pathogens

What are the properties of Adenovirus 40 & 41?

Resolves in 1-2 weeks but can be shed in stool for several months; elevated levels associated with gastroenteritis including symptoms of watery diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and fever

In DSL GI-MAP Intestinal Health Markers, what is the importance of Occult Blood Anti-gliadin IgA Elastase-1 Zonulin Steatocrit Secretory IgA b-Glucuronidase Calprotectin?

Intestinal health markers can help you form an overall impression of the client; it is important to think critically about the connections between the individual markers, as well between the intestinal health markers and other opportunistic and/or pathogenic organisms identified on the test

What are the properties of Elastase-1?

Marker for endogenous pancreatic enzyme production; elastase-1 is a digestive enzyme produced by the pancreas to help break down proteins

What are the properties of Steatocrit?

A measure of fat absorption in the small intestine; high levels associated with pancreatic insufficiency, bile salt insufficiency, hypochlorhydria, celiac disease, maldigestion, malabsorption, steatorrhea, and improper mastication

What are the properties of Secretory IgA?

An immunoglobulin secreted into the GI tract that influences the microbiome and helps to maintain mucosal barrier function

What are the properties of Occult Blood – FIT (Fecal Immunochemical Testing)?

Levels associated with increased risk of disease; always refer out to MD and/or GI specialist for immediate follow-up

What are the properties of Calprotectin?

The most studied marker of GI inflammation

What are the properties of Zonulin?

A protein secreted by intestinal cells that regulate the intercellular tight junctions

What are the 5R Protocols?

Remove, Replace, Reinoculate & Repair, Rebalance

What is the clinical correlation, therapeutic priorities protocol review?

Remove food components that damage the mucosal barrier and toxic exposures; Replace nutritional deficiencies ;Reinoculate & Repair probiotic-rich foods and bone broth; Rebalance FDN D.R.E.S.S.

What forms of stool pathogen are in screening?

DNS by PCR, Antibodies, Stool Culture, Microscopy, Trichrome Stain, Stool Antigens, Occult Blood, CDSA

What is the purpose of microscopy, trichrome stain?

Detect the bug and treat the person with the bug