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Which of the following correctly states the order of succession to the presidency following the death or removal of the President?
a. Vice President, Speaker of the House, President Pro Tempore of the Senate, Secretary of State
b. Vice President, Secretary of State, Speaker of the House, President Pro Tempore of the Senate
c. Vice President, President Pro Tempore of the Senate, Speaker of the House, Secretary of State
d. Vice President, Speaker of the House, Secretary of State, President Pro Tempore of the Senate
e. Vice President, Secretary of State, President Pro Tempore of the Senate, Speaker of the House
The correct answer is A. The order of succession to the Presidency has changed several times through history. The current order was determined by The Presidential Succession Act of 1947. The Speaker of the House was made third in line, the majority leader of the Senate (President Pro Tempore) fourth, with cabinet members following in the order that their departments were created.
Which of the following Supreme Court cases involved the principle of an implied right to personal "privacy" in the Constitution?
a. Roe v. Wade
b. Mapp v. Ohio
c. Fullilove v. Klutznick
d. Marbury v. Madison
e. Gibbons v. Ogden
The correct answer is A. In Roe v. Wade, the Supreme Court ruled that the 9th and 14th Amendments granted rights that were broad enough to encompass a woman's right to decide for herself whether or not she terminates her pregnancy.
Which of the following committees in the House of Representatives gets the greatest attention from lobbyists?
a. Armed Services
b. Appropriations
c. Veterans' Affairs
d. Judiciary
e. Rules
The correct answer is B. Members of the Appropriations Committee receive greater attention from lobbyists because their committee provides funding for regulatory agencies and government contracts. Committee members receive large campaign donations from the health, defense, and energy industries.
The Supreme Court's current view of the Second Amendment is that
a. state governments cannot regulate firearms.
b. state and federal governments are free to regulate firearms in any way they see fit.
c. the federal government cannot regulate firearms.
d. citizens do not have the right to own normal militia weapons.
e. citizens have the right to own normal militia weapons.
The correct answer is E. Currently citizens have the right to keep and bear normal militia weapons. The only Supreme Court case to deal with the right to bear arms was heard in 1939. In its ruling, the Court interpreted the amendment to refer to weapons that were necessary "to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia."
The ranking minority party member of a Senate committee will
a. preside over the committee in the chairperson's absence.
b. determine which bills are heard before the committee.
c. preside jointly with the ranking majority party member of the committee.
d. become the committee chairperson if his or her party gains a majority in the Senate.
e. be considered for the post of President Pro Tempore.
The correct answer is D. Committee chairs in the Senate are given to the majority party member with the greatest committee seniority. Since the ranking minority members will become the most senior majority members if their party wins a Senate majority, they can expect to become the committee chairperson.
All of the following are true about the federal budget EXCEPT:
a. Mandatory spending accounts for the majority of all spending.
b. Discretionary spending must be decided each year by Congress and the President.
c. Appropriation bills provide funds for the spending outlined by Congress and the President.
d. Congressional oversight helps to ensure that programs are well managed and achieve their intended results.
e. Spending for entitlement programs must be approved in each budget cycle.
The correct answer is E. Spending for entitlement programs such as Social Security, Medicare, and veterans' benefits is provided each year by permanent laws. This spending can only be changed if Congress passes and the President approves new legislation.
Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court's current ruling on prayer in American public schools?
a. Any form of speech, including prayer, is protected under the First Amendment no matter where it takes place.
b. Scheduled voluntary prayer is acceptable because children are not coerced into religious behavior.
c. Prayer is acceptable at all times so long as it is "student-initiated."
d. Prayer in schools may take place during a school mandated "moment of silence."
e. Mandated prayer in schools violates the "Establishment Clause" of the First Amendment.
The correct answer is E. The First Amendment's "Establishment Clause" prohibits the government from using its power to "establish" a religion. Prayer in schools and the numerous strategies for getting around "prayer" have all been rejected by the Supreme Court as violation of the essentially secular nature of American government.
Minorities other than African Americans have had the greatest success advancing their civil rights through
a. litigation.
b. constitutional amendments.
c. consumer boycotts.
d. legislative initiatives.
e. mass media advertising.
The correct answer is A. Minorities have had great success advancing their causes through the courts. A host of organizations provide legal support for individuals and groups who wish to challenge what they feel are discriminatory laws.
The Constitution gives the power to "raise and support armies" to the
a. President.
b. Congress.
c. Judiciary.
d. Department of State.
e. Department of Defense.
The correct answer is B. The Constitution gives the power to prepare for and declare war to the Congress and the power to execute war to the President. The Constitution gives no powers to any specific departments.
An impeached President will be removed from office when
a. two-thirds of the House of Representatives vote for his removal.
b. the special prosecutor obtains a conviction before the Senate.
c. two-thirds of the Senate vote for his removal.
d. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court signs a removal order forwarded from the House of Representatives.
e. the President is found guilty by a twelve person jury of "high crimes or misdemeanors."
The correct answer is C. A two-thirds majority in the Senate removes a sitting President who has been impeached by the House of Representatives. Although the Chief Justice presides over the trial in the Senate, he has no special powers.
Which of the following issues was first decided by the Supreme Court?
a. Individual states cannot encroach on the powers of Congress to regulate interstate commerce.
b. A woman has the right to chose whether or not she terminates her pregnancy.
c. Segregation based on race is unconstitutional.
d. Capital punishment is unconstitutional because it represents "cruel and unusual punishment."
e. The line-item veto is unconstitutional because it is not a power enumerated in the Constitution.
The correct answer is A. In Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court struck down a New York law that sought to control trade and transport between New York and other states by granting a steamship monopoly to a firm operating on New York's waterways. The Constitution gives Congress the right to regulate trade between the states. All of the other cases are from the twentieth century.
A congressional representative's efforts to help a constituent resolve a problem with the federal bureaucracy is known as
a. sponsorship.
b. franking.
c. caucus.
d. casework.
e. lobbying.
The correct answer is D. Members of Congress view casework as a useful way to please constituents and win votes.
All of the following profiles fit the typical Republican voter EXCEPT that they are
a. men.
b. college graduates.
c. wealthy individuals.
d. Christians.
e. urban dwellers.
The correct answer is E. Urban Americans are more likely to be Democrats. All of the other categories are associated with higher support for the Republican Party.
Powers unambiguously granted to the Congress by the Constitution are known as
a. enumerated powers.
b. implied powers.
c. resulting powers.
d. inherent powers.
e. delegated powers.
The correct answer is A. Congressional powers explicitly outlined in the Constitution are known as "enumerated powers."
A bill loaded with special projects designed to please home constituents at the expense of the federal taxpayer is known as
a. pork barrel legislation.
b. courtesy legislation.
c. pay-as-you-go legislation.
d. germane legislation.
e. appropriation legislation.
The correct answer is A. A bill loaded with benefits for home constituents is known as "pork barrel legislation."
Congressional members who are finishing their final terms in Congress are known as
a. conferees.
b. cats and dogs.
c. ranking members.
d. lame ducks.
e. sponsors.
The correct answer is D. Lame duck members of Congress find it difficult to meet their legislative objectives. They have limited political capital because they must leave Congress at the end of their term.
The Supreme Court hears
a. all cases under its original jurisdiction.
b. all cases under its appellate jurisdiction.
c. most cases under its appellate jurisdiction and some cases under its original jurisdiction.
d. most cases under its original jurisdiction and some cases under its appellate jurisdiction.
e. a similar number of cases under its original and its appellate jurisdiction.
The correct answer is C. The vast majority of cases before the Supreme Court are appellate cases. However, the Constitution does grant the Court original jurisdiction in a few instances (i.e., in disputes between states). As a result, the Court hears mostly appellate cases and a small number of original jurisdiction cases.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of the Senate Committee on Appropriations?
I. Allocates federal funds to government agencies, departments, and organizations on an annual basis
II. Drafts budget resolutions that determine spending levels
III. Proposes legislation related to banking and financial institutions
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is A. The primary responsibility of the Appropriations Committee is to allocate funds to the numerous governmental agencies and departments. Statement II describes a responsibility of the Budget Committee. Statement III describes a responsibility of the Banking Committee.
The principle that federal law must be followed even when it conflicts with state law is derived from the
a. establishment clause.
b. supremacy clause.
c. due process clause.
d. the necessary and proper clause.
e. guaranty clause.
The correct answer is B. The supremacy clause declares that the Constitution "shall be the supreme law of the land" and that all state laws shall be subordinate to it.
The term that refers to occasional historic shifts of public opinion and voter concerns which either undermine or enhance a party's traditional base of support is
a. realignment.
b. plurality.
c. conservatism.
d. delegation.
e. census baiting
The correct answer is A. Realignment is generally applied to national elections that clearly shift the majority and minority status of the two U.S. major political parties, or that replace one of the two major political parties with one that previously had been a third party. Realignment may be based on many factors, such as the reaction to party positions on a critical issue of national concern (as was the case with the slavery issue in the 1860s), credit or blame for handling a national crisis (such as the Great Depression of 1929), or substantial changes in the demographic composition of the voting populace.
Those who believe judges should not interfere in policy, and should defer to the elected branches of the federal government, would be advocates of
a. original jurisdiction.
b. judicial oversight.
c. judicial restraint.
d. judicial activism.
e. prior restraint.
The correct answer is C. Supporters of judicial restraint contend that the Constitution granted policy-making powers exclusively to the elected branches of the federal government. Therefore, the Judiciary should not second-guess policies promoted by the Congress or the Executive.
Why are Senate races typically more competitive than House of Representatives races?
a. A single party rarely dominates an entire state, and gerrymandering cannot effect the statewide vote.
b. Higher campaign spending by incumbent House representatives leads to more one-sided races than in the Senate.
c. The issues debated in Senate campaigns tend to be more volatile than those that dominate House races.
d. Incumbent senators have little ability to pass legislation that will win them support from their constituents.
e. Senators have less latitude to depart from their party platforms, making it difficult to please their constituents.
The correct answer is A. Senate races are competitive because a senator must appeal to a much larger constituency than a representative in the House. House representatives are often able to use gerrymandering to create congressional districts that grant them a healthy majority of supporters.
Article I of the Constitution grants all legislative powers of the federal government to
a. a subcommittee of the thirteen original states.
b. a Congress divided into three chambers.
c. a Congress divided into two chambers.
d. a system of courts overseen by state governors.
e. an Executive surrounded by a cabinet of advisors.
The correct answer is C. The Constitution grants legislative power to Congress, which is divided into two chambers: the Senate and the House of Representatives.
Which of the following has NOT been linked to major realignments among American voters?
a. Disunity at the party convention and disagreements over key policies
b. Involvement of a third party in prior elections
c. Unusually high voter turnout
d. Intensive television advertising campaigns
e. Real social and economic problems
The correct answer is D. With the exception of intensive advertising, all of the listed factors have resulted in party realignments among American voters. Although advertising can change the outcome of individual elections, it has not yet caused voters to change party en masse to vote for the opposition.
The system of checks and balances incorporates the idea that
a. federal expenditures should be measured by their effectiveness.
b. legislative and executive power should pass through the judiciary.
c. weakness in government is better than strength.
d. leaders must earn the trust of the people.
e. power must be used to offset power.
The correct answer is E. The system of checks and balances was designed to prevent abuses of concentrated power. The founders believed that power was best countered with power. The system they created balances and divides powers to produce a stable and democratic government that has thus far successfully avoided the dangers of tyranny.
An extended debate that is intended to indefinitely delay or prevent a vote in the Senate is known as a
a. firewall.
b. cloture.
c. junket.
d. filibuster.
e. hold.
The correct answer is D. Filibusters are typically used as a last resort by the minority party to prevent passage of unwanted legislation. In the Senate, there is no limit to debate unless 60 votes are available to establish "cloture," ending the filibuster by limiting debate to three days.
The process of reapportionment takes place every
a. two years matching the federal election cycle.
b. ten years after the completion of the federal census.
c. four years following the inauguration of a new President.
d. six years prior to elections for the Senate.
e. time the party controlling the state legislature changes.
The correct answer is B. The Constitution calls for reapportionment every ten years after the completion of the federal census. State legislatures are responsible for determining the new congressional districts.
According to the Constitution, who is the president of the Senate?
a. Senate Majority Leader
b. Vice President
c. President
d. President Pro Tempore
e. Chaplain of the Senate
The correct answer is B. The Constitution names the Vice President as the president of the Senate and the Senate's presiding officer. However, other than breaking a tie, the role is mostly ceremonial.
A brief filed by an entity that is not a party to a lawsuit, but claims to have an interest in its outcome, is known as
a. a writ of certiorari brief.
b. an amicus brief.
c. a prosecutor's brief.
d. defendant's brief.
e. plaintiff's brief.
The correct answer is B. An "amicus brief" is often filed in Supreme Court cases where the implications of a ruling will likely affect many citizens other than those who are parties to the case. For example, civil rights groups often file amicus briefs in civil rights cases to provide the justices with their arguments and relevant information.
Spending by the national committees of the political parties to support the election of congressional candidates is known as
a. coordinated spending.
b. logrolling.
c. hard money spending.
d. matching funds.
e. clean money.
The correct answer is A. Coordinated spending has been a target of advocates for campaign finance reform. This is because the limits on contributions to national parties are less stringent than those on individual candidates. Coordinated spending has been an important tool for both parties.
Most African Americans support the Democratic Party because
a. of its support for the advancement of the civil rights cause.
b. urban voters tend to support Democrats and many African Americans live in cities.
c. of Democratic support for looser immigrations laws.
d. of its tough stand on "law and order" issues.
e. it was the party that ended slavery.
The correct answer is A. Democrats gained great popularity among African Americans for their support of the Civil Rights Movement. Although the Republican President Eisenhower signed the first Civil Rights Act in 1957, the Republican Party has been perceived as less supportive of the civil rights cause.
Which of the following make it difficult for elected officials to control the federal bureaucracy?
I. Career bureaucrats often place personal or departmental interests first.
II. Career bureaucrats have their own areas of policy expertise.
III. Congress and the President compete for influence with the bureaucracy.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is E. Each of the factors listed make it difficult for elected officials to influence the federal bureaucracy.
According the Supreme Court, something is obscene and is not protected as free speech if it contains which of the following elements?
I. It is prurient in nature.
II. It is completely devoid of scientific, political, educational, or social value.
III. It violates local community standards.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is E. The First Amendment to the Constitution does not protect speech that can be defined as obscene. The Supreme Court has defined a thing as obscene if it meets all of the criteria listed above. The emphasis on local standards means that obscenity laws may differ from state to state.
In Plessy v. Ferguson (1896), the Supreme Court upheld segregationist laws, arguing that the protections of the Constitution
a. did not prohibit segregation where the races were separate but equal before the law.
b. did not apply to apply since African Americans were not considered citizens.
c. applied only to federal and not state law.
d. did not include equality for all citizens regardless of color.
e. did not apply to laws predating the Civil War.
The correct answer is A. The Plessy decision is famous for establishing the "separate but equal" standard that was overturned in Brown v. Board of Education. The Court ruled that as long as all races were equally responsible for following the law, segregation was constitutional. Later, in Brown, the Court ruled that "separate is never equal."
What has been the constitutional basis for challenges to campaign contribution limits?
a. Free speech
b. Due process
c. Right to assembly
d. Right to privacy
e. Right to petition the government
The correct answer is A. Opponents of limits on campaign contributions have argued that such restrictions limit an individual's right to free speech. They view campaign contributions as a form of free speech.
Which of the following contradicts the idea of a pluralistic America?
a. Faith-based organizations that campaign to criminalize abortion
b. Lack of ethnic and religious diversity among representatives in Congress
c. Ethnic and religious lobbies that can influence law makers
d. Religious communities that have chosen to live apart from other Americans
e. The printing of ballots and voter information in foreign languages
The correct answer is B. Despite progress made during the Civil Rights Movement, the membership of Congress does not accurately represent American diversity. Pluralism is the belief that society should be governed by elites who represent the interests of the many ethnic, religious, and social groups that comprise modern society.
Which of the following is an example of a clientele agency?
a. Farm Credit Administration
b. Department of Defense
c. Department of Justice
d. Department of State
e. Joint Chiefs of Staff
The correct answer is A. The Farm Credit Administration is considered a clientele agency. A clientele agency is typically set up by Congress to satisfy an important and politically active segment of society. It also represents the seizing of territory by Congress, which maintains nominal control over the agency, not the Presidency.
The lowest court in the federal system is the
a. district court.
b. superior court.
c. court of appeal.
d. circuit court.
e. Supreme Court.
The correct answer is A. The district courts are the trial courts of the federal system. There are 94 federal courts across the country dealing with civil and criminal matters.
What is the greatest expense of running a presidential election campaign?
a. Travel
b. Advertising
c. Salaries
d. Entertainment
e. Polling
The correct answer is B. Advertising is by far the greatest expense of running a national campaign. Television, radio, and print ads usually account for more than half of total campaign spending.
Which of the following are "checks" granted to Congress by the Constitution?
I. The ability to decide the number of Supreme Court justices
II. The ability to decide the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
III. The right to impeach and remove federal judges
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is E. The Congress has substantial powers to check the judiciary including the three listed above. However, Congress has rarely tried to use these powers.
Which of the following can stop an executive order from being carried out?
I. Congress may pass a bill to nullify the order.
II. The Supreme Court can rule that the order is unconstitutional.
III. Three-fourths of the states can vote to nullify the order.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is C. Congress can pass a "nullification" bill that declares the executive order no longer effective. Alternatively, any federal court may declare the executive order unconstitutional and prevent it from being carried out. No part of an executive order can be illegal or unconstitutional. The states have no power to interfere with an executive order.
Senators serve terms of
a. four years.
b. twelve years.
c. six years.
d. two years.
e. five years.
The correct answer is C. Senators serve six-year terms. One-third of the Senate stands for election every two years.
The most powerful position in the House of Representatives is the
a. Speaker.
b. Vice President.
c. Majority Whip.
d. Minority Leader.
e. President Pro Tempore.
The correct answer is A. At the beginning of each new House session, a Speaker is chosen to preside over the body. Traditionally, the Speaker is the leader of the majority party in the House. Although the Vice President is also president of the Senate, he has no powers in the House. The President Pro Tempore is also a Senate leader.
The doctrine of "prior restraint" is most closely associated with
a. religious tolerance.
b. freedom of the press.
c. liable speech.
d. sexual lifestyles.
e. political assembly.
The correct answer is B. Federal courts developed the doctrine of "prior restraint" to protect the press from preemptive censorship.
Which of the following is a tactic often used by interest groups to influence the federal bureaucracy?
a. Picketing federal office buildings
b. Striking and work stoppages
c. Protesting and civil disobedience
d. Influencing political appointments
e. Refusing to pay taxes
The correct answer is D. Interest groups often attempt to influence the appointment of department heads. For example, environmentalists and industry leaders vie with each other to influence the President's choice for head of the Environmental Protection Agency.
Which factor best explains why individuals might change opinions that they have expressed in a survey?
a. Survey bias can cloud an individual's true viewpoint.
b. Individuals may not be able to read the survey.
c. People often do not have underlying attitudes to anchor their opinions.
d. Media coverage and agendas change rapidly.
e. Family pressures can change the answers that an individual gives on a survey.
The correct answer is C. An individual is more likely to change his or her opinion if that opinion is not based on some deeper attitude or principle.
The presidential action that frees an individual of criminal charges is a
a. reprieve.
b. commutation.
c. parole.
d. pardon.
e. probation.
The correct answer is D. The Constitution grants the President the ability to pardon any person convicted of crimes. Presidents normally pardon a number of individuals just before the end of their tenure.
Which of the following in NOT a due process right?
a. The right to be free from unlawful search and seizure
b. The right to retain an attorney
c. The right to remain silent
d. The right to trial by jury in all criminal and civil cases
e. The right to not be tried twice for the same crime
The correct answer is D. Due process rights protect the accused and define the process the government must follow before punishing criminals. Although trial by jury is a due process right for criminal matters, the same does not apply to all civil cases.
Which of the following is an example of how an interest group may have an influence on the federal judiciary?
a. The American Medical Association may seek limits on jury awards in malpractice cases.
b. The American Civil Liberties Union may bring suit to improve the rights of prisoners.
c. The National Association for the Advancement of Colored Peoples may question the constitutionality of laws that affect its constituents.
d. The American Bar Association may be asked to evaluate potential candidates for the federal court.
e. The National Rifle Association may protest greater restrictions on the sale and purchase of assault rifles.
The correct answer is D. The judiciary often asks the American Bar Association to evaluate candidates for the federal court. Otherwise, the judiciary is as isolated as possible from the influences of interest groups. Such influences may be part of the democratic process for Congress but would be seen as unethical for the judiciary.
Which of the following is associated with greater political participation?
a. Having high socioeconomic status
b. Being a minority
c. Having strong religious beliefs
d. Having low socioeconomic status
e. Being a college student
The correct answer is A. Individuals of with high socioeconomic status are more likely to participate politically. The other answer choices tend to indicate lower levels of political participation.
Which of the following does NOT define a power relationship between states and a federal government?
a. Pluralism
b. Devolution
c. Dual federalism
d. States' rights
e. Confederation
The correct answer is A. Pluralism is a philosophy of society and government that recognizes diversity as engine for social change and progress. It does not deal with issues of state and federal government.
To become a Supreme Court Justice, an individual nominated by the President must receive the "consent" of the
a. Senate.
b. House of Representatives.
c. Attorney General.
d. Judiciary Committee.
e. Supreme Court.
The correct answer is A. The Constitution grants the Senate the power to confirm all executive appointments including those to the judiciary. A successful nominee serves with the "consent" of the Senate.
Most of the actual work of Congress takes place
a. on the House of Representatives floor.
b. in the standing committees.
c. in the caucuses.
d. in the House Rules Committee.
e. on the Senate floor.
The correct answer is B. Most of the detailed work of creating and modifying legislation takes place in the various standing committees. Unlike the Senate, little debate takes place on the floor of the House of Representatives.
The original purpose of the Bill of Rights was to limit the powers of
a. state governments.
b. the federal government.
c. both state and federal government.
d. the British crown.
e. the courts.
The correct answer is B. The Anti-Federalists feared that a strong federal government would result in tyranny. They insisted that the Constitution include a list of things that the government "couldn't do." With a Bill of Rights limiting the power of the federal government, the Anti-Federalists agreed to support the Constitution.
Which of the following tactics were used to deny African Americans the right to vote?
I. Poll taxes
II. Literacy tests
III. Grandfather clauses
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and III only
e. I, II, and III
The correct answer is E. All of these methods were used to prevent African Americans from exercising their right to vote. Similar tests were often not applied to any class of white voters.
A coherent set of values and beliefs about the purpose and scope of government describes an individual's
a. political socialization.
b. class consciousness.
c. family history.
d. political ideology.
e. socioeconomic class.
The correct answer is D. A political ideology is an interrelated set of values and beliefs about role of government in society.
Under the Articles of Confederation, most power was concentrated in the
a. federal government.
b. judiciary.
c. legislature.
d. executive.
e. states.
The correct answer is E. Under the Articles of Confederation, the states maintained most governmental powers, ceding to the national government only the power to direct foreign policy and conclude treaties.
To negotiate a complex and politically sensitive trade treaty, a President will often
a. defer to the Senate.
b. use the War Powers Act.
c. seek "fast-track" authority from the Congress.
d. issue an executive order.
e. defer to the Department of Commerce.
The correct answer is C. Fast-track authority allows the President to negotiate complex deals with foreign nations that would be difficult in the politicized environment of the Congress. While fast-track authority greatly facilitates the negotiation process, Congress retains its constitutional power to ratify treaties. The President must submit completed agreements to Congress for approval before they become binding.
Which of the following has the LEAST influence on the federal bureaucracy?
a. Senate
b. House of Representatives
c. President
d. Supreme Court
e. Presidential cabinet
The correct answer is D. The judiciary has little influence on bureaucrats and generally attempts to remain impartial. The cabinet has the greatest amount of influence on the bureaucracy since its members head up the various executive departments.
Which of the following would be most likely to support government involvement in the economy?
a. Libertarians
b. Conservatives
c. Anti-Federalists
d. Liberals
e. Anarchists
The correct answer is D. The common definition of "liberal" ideology includes a belief that the government has an important role to play in the economy. The other ideologies given are opposed to government involvement in the economy.
The "excesses of democracy" decried by the founders of the Constitution pertained to the
a. carnival atmosphere that prevailed during elections.
b. tyranny of the majority over the minority.
c. expansion of the vote to women and minorities.
d. large deficits caused by pork barrel legislation.
e. destruction of social and class distinctions.
The correct answer is B. The founders feared that a fully empowered majority would always threaten the individual rights of the minority. As Jefferson said, "An elective despotism was not the government we fought for." For this reason, the founders decided upon a federal republic with checks and balances and constitutional rights that prevented a majority from exercising excessive power over a helpless minority.
The primary function of the Cabinet is to
a. assist the President in executing laws and making policy decisions.
b. prepare legislation for the Congress.
c. serve as a link between the President and the American public.
d. translate presidential policies to work at the state and local levels.
e. meet as the National Security Council.
The correct answer is A. The members of the Cabinet are the secretaries of the executive departments. It is their responsibility to help the President make policy and execute the laws of the nation.
Which of the following is NOT a government corporation?
a. U.S. Postal Service
b. Import / Export Bank of the United States
c. Amtrak
d. Tennessee Valley Authority
e. National Science Foundation
The correct answer is E. The National Science Foundation is an independent agency of the federal government, but it is not a government corporation. Government corporations are at least partially self-funding, semi-autonomous agencies with clearly defined responsibilities.
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that police must inform suspects of their rights at the time of their arrest?
a. Marbury v. Madison
b. Bowsher v. Synar
c. Miranda v. Arizona
d. Lochner v. New York
e. Ferguson v. Skrupa
The correct answer is C. In Miranda v. Arizona, the Supreme Court ruled that, at the time of their arrest, suspects must be informed of their right to remain silent and to have an attorney. These rights are commonly referred to as "Miranda Rights."
A party's presidential and vice-presidential candidates are formally chosen and its national platform is adopted
a. at the national convention.
b. through a vote and direct primaries.
c. through a lottery system.
d. by state party organizations.
e. by members already in government.
The correct answer is A. Although the party national conventions are little more than pep rallies before the presidential campaign, some substantive work is done. In addition to formally selecting the party's presidential and vice-presidential candidates, the convention debates and adopts a party platform that contains the party's commonly agreed principles and objectives.
Which of the following philosophers believed that the responsibility of the state was to protect life, liberty, and property?
a. Voltaire
b. John Stuart Mill
c. John Locke
d. Benjamin Franklin
e. Baron de Montesquieu
The correct answer is C. John Locke's Second Treatise of Government outlines his version of the social contract underlying just government. He believed that individuals surrendered a degree of personal autonomy so that the government could protect life, liberty, and property.
Which of the following are tools of congressional oversight used to evaluate governmental programs?
I. General Accounting Office
II. Congressional Research Service
III. Congressional Budget Office
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. I, II and III
The correct answer is A. The General Accounting Office is the primary watchdog for Congress. It studies how the federal government uses tax dollars, evaluates federal programs, audits federal expenditures, and issues legal opinions.
The largest entitlement program of the federal government is
a. Food Stamps.
b. Medicaid.
c. National Defense.
d. Social Security.
e. Medicare
The correct answer is D. The largest entitlement program is Social Security. (Medicare and Medicaid are also large but not as large as Social Security.) Entitlement programs deliver aid to all individuals who meet the eligibility conditions specified by law.
Which of the following are prohibited under Eighth Amendment protections against "cruel and unusual punishment"?
a. Execution of the mentally retarded
b. Execution for capital crimes
c. Use of voluntary prison labor
d. Execution by hanging
e. Solitary confinement
The correct answer is A. The Supreme Court ruled that executing a mentally retarded individual for any crime would constitute "cruel and unusual punishment" as prohibited under the Eighth Amendment. The Court decided that a "national consensus" believed that a retarded person should not be put to death. In his minority opinion, Justice Scalia argued that any convicting jury embodied a "community standard" of what was or was not "cruel and unusual punishment."
Quick and often humorous comments made by candidates for the media are know as
a. sound bites.
b. free media.
c. sound checks.
d. positive ads.
e. contrast ads.
The correct answer is A. Candidates attempt to control the way they are presented in the media through the use of sound bites. Sound bites are tailored comments that can be easily adapted for presentation in the media. Ideally, these short quotes should be funny and convey as concisely as possible the candidate's intended message.
Which two related issues were most fiercely debated at the Constitutional Convention of 1787?
a. Church and state
b. Taxation and spending
c. Liberty and security
d. Representation and slavery
e. Currency and banking
The correct answer is D. Delegates to the Constitutional Convention were divided over how to structure representation under the new Constitution. The Great Compromise that settled these differences satisfied both populous slave-owning southern states and less populous northern states. Larger states were happy that the new union would have a two-chamber legislature and, for the purpose of apportionment in the House of Representatives, slaves would count as three-fifths of a citizen. Smaller states were also satisfied that despite their small size, they would be represented by two senators.
Ambassadors, as well as embassy and consular staff, are all employees of the
a. State Department.
b. Defense Department.
c. Department of the Interior.
d. Agency for International Development.
e. Congress of the United States.
The correct answer is A. The State Department handles America's international relations and employs ambassadors and all other American embassy and consular staff abroad.
The stories that the media chooses to cover
a. reveal the conservative bias of the media.
b. undermine the efforts made by leadership in more important areas.
c. attest to the liberal bias of the media.
d. can help determine the country's political agenda.
e. have little effect on politics.
The correct answer is D. Perhaps the media's greatest power is its ability to help determine the nation's political agenda by the stories it chooses to cover. This power is often not centralized or organized, and it may merely reflect the tastes and opinions of the voters themselves.
The First Amendment's "free exercise clause" protects the rights of citizens to freely
a. exercise their right to vote.
b. express their views.
c. practice their religion.
d. manage their business.
e. petition their leaders.
The correct answer is C. The free exercise clause guarantees that the government will not create laws that "prohibit the free exercise" of religion. This has been interpreted as barring laws that discourage or prevent individuals from practicing their religion.
Which of the following was originally granted the power to choose United States Senators?
a. Senatorial districts voters
b. All state voters
c. State electoral colleges
d. State governors
e. State legislatures
The correct answer is E. Senators were originally chosen by the state legislatures.
Among other things, the Federal Reserve Board
a. conducts the nation's monetary policy and supervises and regulates banks.
b. coins money and issues government bonds.
c. administers the Selective Service System and maintains the National Guard.
d. maintains America's petroleum and other strategic stockpiles.
e. oversees the protection of federal lands and natural resources.
The correct answer is A. The Federal Reserve Board was created to provide America with a safe, flexible, and stable monetary and financial system. The Board supervises and regulates banks and controls the money supply by changing the discount rate it charges on its loans to banks. The Board does not coin money or issue bonds—that is the work of the Treasury Department.
The Bill of Rights incorporates protections for all of the following EXCEPT
a. right to bear arms.
b. freedom to petition the government.
c. freedom of religion.
d. equality before the law.
e. pursuit of happiness.
The correct answer is E. The Declaration of Independence, not the Bill of Rights, identifies the basic human rights of "life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness."
Which of the following factions supported stronger state powers and a weaker national government?
a. Royalists
b. Federalists
c. Anti-Federalists
d. Nationalists
e. Whigs
The correct answer is C. The Anti-Federalists feared a tyrannical federal government that would erode state powers. Federalists wanted a strong federal government.
Shay's Rebellion demonstrated the weakness of
a. the United States Constitution.
b. federalism.
c. colonial administration.
d. the Articles of Confederation.
e. slavery.
The correct answer is D. In Shay's rebellion, Massachusetts farmers rose up to protest their economic plight. The incident shook the confidence of many at the Constitutional Convention and shifted the opinions of many delegates towards favoring a more powerful national government.
Which Senate committee writes the annual legislation releasing federal funds to government agencies, departments, and organizations?
a. Appropriations
b. Government Affairs
c. Finance
d. Ways and Means
e. Budget
The correct answer is A. The Appropriations committee drafts the funding legislation that keeps government programs financed. It is the Senate's largest committee and one of its most powerful.
If a bill passed by Congress remains with the President for more than ten days without him signing it, and Congress
a. is no longer in session, the bill becomes law.
b. is still in session, the bill is considered vetoed.
c. is no longer in session, the bill has been "pocket vetoed."
d. is still in session, the President has until the next session of Congress to sign the bill into law.
e. is in session or is not in session, the bill becomes law.
The correct answer is C. The President has 10 days to sign legislation. However, if he fails to sign, the legislation will still become law. There is one exception to this rule. If the 10-day period extends past the adjournment of Congress, failure to sign will have the same effect as a veto. This presidential tactic is known as a "pocket veto." A bill that has been "pocket vetoed" is dead and, unlike other bills, cannot be reintroduced to Congress for a possible override.
Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the Congress?
a. Representation
b. Investigation and scrutiny
c. Legislation
d. Financial control
e. Enforcement
The correct answer is E. Enforcement is the responsibility of the executive branch, not the legislative branch, of the federal government.
The doctrine of applying amendments to the Bill of Rights to states and localities is known as
a. promulgation.
b. incorporation.
c. devolution.
d. confederation.
e. nullification.
The correct answer is B. Rights which have been "incorporated" apply to states as well as the federal government. For example, with the exception of "trial by jury," the due process protections of the Bill of Rights did not originally apply to the states. It wasn't until the 14th Amendment that they were incorporated into the state governments. Other rights such as freedom of speech and the right to bear arms were originally conceived as incorporated rights.
In which of the following theories of federalism does the national government and the states have authority in strictly defined and mutually exclusive areas of policy?
a. Creative federalism
b. New federalism
c. Dual federalism
d. Unified federalism
e. Cooperative federalism
The correct answer is C. Dual federalism was the prevailing form of federalism in the United States until the 1900s. States' rights gradually eroded as the federal government extended its powers to regulate businesses, the economy, and civil rights.
When selecting a member of his cabinet, a President might hope to accomplish which of the following?
I. Reward supporters
II. Strengthen links with Congress
III. Establish a new executive department
IV. Strengthen links with key interest groups
a. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. I, II, and IV only
d. I, III, and IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV
The correct answer is C. Only an act of Congress can create an executive department. Cabinet selections are highly political, and the President uses his appointments to strengthen existing relationships or to build new ones.
Over which of the following is there broad consensus in American public opinion?
a. The institutional basis of American democracy
b. The application of American values to social problems
c. The incorporation of religious or ethical values in public policy
d. The priorities of American foreign policy
e. The role of the government in the private sector
The correct answer is A. Most Americans agree on the institutional basis of American democracy: the Constitution, three branches, and checks and balances that are characteristic of American government. However, opinions about how to use the government to solve specific problems are more diverse.
In the recent past, government efforts to restrict free political expression have been justified mainly on the grounds of
a. religion.
b. public decency.
c. national security.
d. economics.
e. accuracy.
The correct answer is C. The right of free political expression is central to the functioning of our democracy. Therefore, the government is unlikely to place restrictions on it unless it can be argued to threaten "national security." The government has not attempted to restrict free political expression for any of the other reasons given.
Which of the following most influenced the founders of the Constitution to establish a federal republic in America?
a. Political theories that federalism best protected individual liberties
b. Examples of successful federal governments in Europe
c. The need to reconcile slave-owning and free states in one system
d. State governments already existed and refused to dissolve themselves
e. A desire to limit popular participation in national decision making
The correct answer is D. Practical considerations accounted for the founders' decision to create a federal republic. While the states were determined to keep as much power as possible, they recognized the need for a unified government to deal with internal and external challenges.
The function of conference committees is to
a. gauge public opinion through testimony from interest groups and other witnesses.
b. resolve the differences between existing House of Representatives and Senate versions of a bill.
c. determine political strategy and adopt platform for the congressional session.
d. offer concessions to win support for a bill from the President and his cabinet.
e. join together state party leaders prior to the general election.
The correct answer is B. Conference committees join together members of the appropriate House of Representatives and Senate standing committees to resolve conflicts between versions of a bill passed by each chamber. Once a compromise bill is agreed upon, it is sent to the House of Representatives and then to the Senate for approval.
Which of the following amendments was the only amendment to be ratified through the process of "ratifying conventions," not a vote in the state legislatures?
a. 13th Amendment (abolishment of slavery)
b. 21st Amendment (repeal of prohibition)
c. 16th Amendment (allowing income tax)
d. 2nd Amendment (right to bare arms)
e. 18th Amendment (prohibition)
The correct answer is D. The first ten amendments to the Constitution (the Bill of Rights) were passed in a ratifying convention rather than through votes of the state legislatures.
Which of the following statements best reflects the elite theory of American politics?
a. American politics is dominated by a small elite who is responsible for most of the important policy decisions.
b. Public policies emerge from compromises reached among competing groups.
c. The American political arena is made up of individuals, many of whom are striving to be part of an elite.
d. Public policy arises directly from the will of the majority, as expressed through voting patterns.
e. Many U.S. senators come from wealthy families.
The correct answer is A. The elite theory of American politics holds that a small moneyed elite exercises dominant control over the most important policy decisions. B reflects the leading theory of American politics, the pluralistic theory, while D reflects the majoritarian theory of American politics, considered obsolete, which holds that public policy arises directly from the will of the majority. C and E do not pertain to any established theory of American politics.
The annual federal budget process is initiated by the
a. President.
b. House of Representatives.
c. Senate.
d. Appropriations Committee.
e. Ways and Means Committee.
The correct answer is A. Although the Constitution does not require the President to present an annual budget, in 1921 the Budget and Accounting Act became law and lay the foundation for the modern budget process, which includes the President's budget. More recently, the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 established a timetable for the annual budget process, which is kicked off each year by the Presidential budget submission. The Budget Act specifies that the President's budget should be presented to the Congress on or before the first Monday in February. This generally coincides with the timing of the President's annual State of the Union Address before the Congress.