CC-2 finals

1. What is the lifetime risk of women dying from cancer?

19%

2. What is the most common cancer among sexes?

Prostate in male; Breast in female

3. Tumor markers may be defined as:

Biological substances produced either directly by the tumor or as an effect of the tumor on healthy tissue

4. What is the major drawback of tumor markers?

Specificity and sensitivity

5. Which of the following is not a serum endocrine tumor marker?

Alpha macroglobulin

6. The germ cell tumor that presents with elevated afp and a normal hcg is:

Yolk sac tumor

7. Tumor marker that can be used to monitor response to treatment and possible recurrence:

CA 15-3 & CA 27-29

8. CA 19-9 is for monitoring treatment response of:

GI cancer & Adenocarcinoma

9. Which of the ff is not a tumor receptor marker:

Thyroid hormone receptor

10. Which is used as a tumor marker?

LD

11. A serum PSA is used for:

Screening, monitoring, & recurrence

12. A tumor marker used in assessment of HCC:

AFP

13. The ff are clinical applications of tumor markers except:

Diagnosis

14. Which tumor marker can be used for prognostication, treatment monitoring, and or recurrence detection?

All choices listed (AFP, CA 125, hCG, PSA, CA 19-9)

15. Tumor receptor markers are used for:

Prognostication

16. Tumor marker that warrants hormonal treatment:

Estrogen receptor & Her-2/neu

17. Special consideration should be observed when using Immunoassay method in measuring tumor markers, except:

Diluted sample

18. Tumor markers are identified from tissue specimen

Enz assay

19. Primary application of AFP is to detect:

HCC and Testicular cancer

20. The ff are gestational trophoblastic diseases, except:

Hydatidiform mole

21. Enz needed to produce CA 19-9

Fucosyltransferase

22. Clinical use of CA 15-3 is to monitor recurrence of:

Breast cancer

23. An Oncofetal antigen

CEA

24. hCG is elevated in:

ovarian, testicular, and choriocarcinoma

25. Most common Immunoassay used to measure PSA:

Total PSA

26. Regulates body metabolism:

Tetrachlorohydrone & Triiodothyronine

27. Which substance increases osteoclastic activity

PTH

28. What is the effect of PTH in Calcium concentration?

Blocks phosphate reabsorption from tubules

29. Most common cause of 2’ hyperparathyroidism:

CKD

30. Main blood supply of the thyroid gland:

Superior and Inferior thyroid artery

31. Bldg blocks of thyroid hormone:

Tyrosine and Iodine

32. Production of TH is initiated by:

Hypothalamus

33. Correct order of thyroid hormone synthesis:

Thyroglobulin production, iodine oxidation, Thyroglobulin iodination

34. Iodothyronine from this structure regulates level of T3

Liver

35. High level of this hormone is a negative feedback mechanism to the hypothalamus

T3 and T4

37. A person diagnosed with hypothyroidism may manifest the ff except,

Weight loss

41. Thyroglobulin can be measured by:

Immunochemiluminescent assay, Enzyme-linked Immunoassay, Immunoradiometric assay

42. Most common cause of hyperthyroidism:

Grave's disease

43. The autoimmune disease that causes destruction of the thyroid gland is:

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

44. Enzyme involved in TH production

Thyroperoxidase

45. Radioactive iodine can be used to:

Assess thyroid activity; Detect metastasis

46. The non-invasive procedure that uses sound waves to detect small thyroid nodules is:

Thyroid ultrasound

47. What does Bethesda category 4 mean?

Follicular neoplasm

48. One should suggest a 2’ hypothyroidism when it is associated with:

Hyponatremia

49. A common sign shared by both Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:

Goiter

50. Which type of thyroid status when T4, T3, and TSH levels are low?

2’ hypothyroidism

51. Vitamin D and Cholesterol

Kidney and Liver

52. Vit D2 aka

Ergocalciferol

55. Diagnosis of 1’ hyperparathyroidism is confirmed by:

Elevated ionized calcium, Decreased phosphate, Elevated PTH

56. Edema is formed when there is excessive fluid in:

Interstitial fluid

57. Major Organ in fluid reabsorption

Kidneys

58. Plasma osmotic activity is largely associated with the con'c of

Sodium

59. Major protein that exerts oncotic pressure to draw water in intravascular space

Albumin

60. Urine sodium is used to differentiate causes of water retention, what condition will you consider if urine sodium is 28.5 mmol/dl?

Nephrotic syndrome

61. Drug that inhibits the action of AVP

Conivaptan

62. Serious side effect of rapid correction of Hyponatremia

[missing in original]

63. Part of nephrons that reabsorb more electrolytes

Proximal convoluted tubule

64. How many ATPs are produced for each mole of glucose in normal aerobic metabolism?

36

65. Lipid is a precursor of

Cholesterol

67. Major apolipoprotein of HDL

Apo A-I

69. Components of Liebermann-Burchard reagent:

Acetic anhydride and Sulfuric acid

70. Bonding between hydrophilic side of lipid and water

Non Covalent Hydrogen bond

71. Enzyme for Bilirubin conjugation

UDPGT

72. Fraction of bilirubin that reacts with diazo reagent without accelerator:

Conjugated/Direct bilirubin

73. Reagent p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is used for:

ALP

74. Production of diazo product to measure:

Bilirubin

75. Test to check synthetic function of the liver

ALT

76. Small defective RNA virus, requires HBsAg for replication

Hepatitis D

77. Primary malignant tumors of liver are most likely related to

Alcoholism

78. Indicates unfavorable prognosis on patient with HBV

HBeAg

79. Hepatitis Status of a patient with HBsAg(-), Anti-HBc(-), Anti HBs(+)

Had previous vaccination

80. Enzymes are divided into categories based on

Type of reaction

82. A Substrate when an enz requires an inorganic substance such as zinc for activity

Activator

83. Why are enzymes measured by activity rather than concentration?

Concentration is too low to measure

84. Saccharogenic method for amylase determinations measure:

Amount of product produced

85. Patient with Paget's disease

ALP

86. DME transforms xenobiotics

CYP 450

87. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system is the most important buffer system because:

Changes in the CO2 modifies respiratory rate; It can dissociate in H2O and CO2; HCO3 conc can be controlled by kidneys

88. Which conditions may cause metabolic acidosis?

Renal tubular acidosis; High output enterocutaneous fistula; Diarrhea

89. Transport of oxygen is not possible with this type of hemoglobin:

MetHb

90. Oxygen dissociation curve will shift to the right:

Increase 2,3-DPG

91. What will happen when the arterial blood from a normal patient is exposed to room air?

pCO2 increases, pO2 decreased

95. Manganese toxicity resembles

Parkinson's disease

96. Metal used as treatment for Wilson's disease

Zinc

97. Bluish white, lustrous metal, stable in dry air, and becomes covered with a white coating when exposed to moisture

Zinc

98. Which is true with Transferrin or TIBC?

Increased in IDA; Decreased in Iron overload and hemochromatosis

99. Disorders associated with magnesium deficiency:

Tetany; Convulsions; Abnormal cardiac rhythm

100. AFP stands for

Alpha fetoprotein