BIO 130 Final Exam

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Electrically charged particle due to loss of electron

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Multiple choice questions from past unit tests

Biology

133 Terms

1

Electrically charged particle due to loss of electron

Cation

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2

Electrically charged particles due to the gain of an electron

Anion

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3

Neutral subatomic particle

Neutron

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4

Smallest particle of an element that retains its properties

Atom

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5

Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of electrons the atom contains.

A) True

B) False

False

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6

A chemical bond is an energy relationship between outer (valence) electrons of neighboring atoms.

A) True

B) False

True

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7

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?

A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons

B) 74 protons

C) 37 protons and 37 electrons

D) 37 electrons

74 protons

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8

Atoms that are bonded with an electronegativity difference of 0-0.4 are generally considered to be _______.

A) Negatively charged compounds

B) Non-polar covalent compounds

C) Polar-covalent compounds

D) Ionic compounds

Non-polar covalent compounds

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9

Which of the following describes a chemical bond that involves sharing of pair of electrons between atoms in a molecule?

A) A cation

B) A covalent bond

C) A ion

D) An ionic bond

A covalent bond

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10

The four elements that make up about 96% of your body are______.

A) Sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen

B) Nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium

C) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

D) Carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

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11

An atom with three valence electrons may have a total of _______ electrons.

A) 17

B) 13

C) 8

D) 3

13

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12

A(n) ________ bond means that two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms.

A) Triple bond

B) Single Bond

C) Double Bond

D) Ionic bond

Double bond

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13

A polar covalent bond ______.

A) Has equal attraction of the electron pair between the bonded atoms

B) Has unequal attraction of the electron pair between the bonded atoms

Has equal attraction of the electron pair between the bonded atoms

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14

The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration.

A) True

B) False

True

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15

Weak acids can act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they only partially dissociate.

A) True

B) False

True

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16

Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of the body by releasing or binding hydrogen ions.

A) True

B) False

True

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17

The normal pH of blood is 7.00-7.25

A) True

B) False

False

<p>False</p>
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18

The acidity of a solution reflects the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution.

A) True

B) False

True

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19

Which statement best describes a pH indicator?

A) Changes color when exposed to different levels of OH-

B) Changes color when exposed to different levels of weak acids

C) Changes color when exposed to different levels of weak bases

D) Changes color when exposed to different levels of H+

Changes color when exposed to different levels of H+

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20

In water, a substance that ionizes completely in solution is called a ______.

A) semiconductor

B) strong electrolyte

C) non electrolyte

D) weak electrolyte

E) non conductor

strong electrolyte

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21

______ atoms attract electrons very strongly.

A) Electropositive

B) Electroneutral

C) Electronegative

D) Electrostable

Electronegative

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22

Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?

A) HCl + NaOH --> NaCl + H2O

B) NH3 + H+ --> NH4+2

C) HCl --> H+ + Cl-

D) NaOH --> Na+ + OH-

HCl + NaOH --> NaCl + H2O

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23

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The pH of blood is slightly basic

B) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution

C) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt

D) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases

When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases

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24

A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ______.

A) metabolic acidosis

B) respiratory alkalosis

C) metabolic alkalosis

D) respiratory acidosis

respiratory acidosis

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25

A mixture is prepared by dissolving 2 g of KCl in 100 ml of H2O. In this mixture, H2O is the ______.

A) solution

B) solute

C) solvent

D) solid

E) ionic compound

solvent

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26

The single most important blood buffer system is the bicarbonate buffer system.

A) True

B) False

True

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27

______ are proton acceptors and decrease the concentration of H+ ions in solution.

Buffers

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28

Weak acids paired with weak bases can be used to ______ pH

Balance

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29

It is the high number of ______ bonds that attract water molecules to each other and polar solutes in solution.

Hydrogen

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30

A ______ is a layer of water molecules enveloping dissolved solutes in solution.

Hydration layer

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31

______ is the water volume found inside every cell in the human body.

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

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32
<p>Patient #1 ABG Results: pH= 7.2, Pco2= 57 mmHg, HCO3-=25 mEq/L</p><p>A) uncompensated respiratory acidosis</p><p>B) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis</p><p>C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis</p><p>D) uncompensated respiratory alkalosis</p>

Patient #1 ABG Results: pH= 7.2, Pco2= 57 mmHg, HCO3-=25 mEq/L

A) uncompensated respiratory acidosis

B) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis

D) uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

uncompensated respiratory acidosis

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33
<p>Patient #2 ABG Results: pH= 7.49, Pco2= 37 mmHg, HCO3-=29 mEq/L</p><p>A) partially compensated respiratory alkalosis</p><p>B) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis</p><p>C) uncompensated metabolic alkalosis</p><p>D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis</p>

Patient #2 ABG Results: pH= 7.49, Pco2= 37 mmHg, HCO3-=29 mEq/L

A) partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

B) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

C) uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis

uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

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34
<p>Patient #3 ABG Results: pH= 7.54, Pco2= 49 mmHg, HCO3-= 32 mEq/L</p><p>A) uncompensated respiratory acidosis</p><p>B) partially compensated respiratory alkalosis</p><p>C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis</p><p>D) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis</p>

Patient #3 ABG Results: pH= 7.54, Pco2= 49 mmHg, HCO3-= 32 mEq/L

A) uncompensated respiratory acidosis

B) partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis

D) partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

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35

Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body and must be obtained from the diet are referred to as ______.

A) imcomplete

B) polar

C) complete

D) nonpolar

E) essential

Essential

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36

Purines are small, single-ring nitrogen-containing bases.

A) True

B) False

False

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37

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles of humans in the form of ______.

A) amylose

B) glycogen

C) starch

D) cholesterol

Glycogen

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38

A carbonyl group consists of ______.

A) carbon and oxygen attached by a single bond

B) carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond

C) a carbon-oxygen-carbon attached by single bonds

D) a carbon-oxygen-hydrogen attached by single bonds

E) carbon and oxygen attached by triple bonds

carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond

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39

Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.

A) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases

B) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C

C) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, tDNA

D) DNA is found exclusively in the cytoplasm of the cell

DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases

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40

Compounds that have the same molecular formula, but different structural arrangements of atoms are called ______.

A) isotopes

B) isomers

C) isometrics

D) isozymes

E) indicators

Isomers

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41

Phospholipids can interact with other lipids and water because they contain ______.

A) glycerol

B) cholesterol

C) double bonds

D) saturated fatty acids

E) polar regions and nonpolar regions

Polar regions and nonpolar regions

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42
<p>What type of isomer is this show in the image?</p>

What type of isomer is this show in the image?

Cis-trans isomer

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43

The sugar also known as dextrose, and blood sugar is ______.

A) sucrose

B) fructose

C) glucose

D) lactose

Glucose

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44

In the L- isomer of a monosaccharide, the OH- group farthest from the carbonyl is written

A) on the left

B) on the right

C) on the top

D) on the bottom

on the left

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45

______ is the basis of steroid hormones and vitamin D and may contribute to clogged arteries when increased levels form plaques.

A) Carbohydrates

B) Triglycerides

C) Prostaglandins

D) Cholesterol

Cholesterol

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46

A clear blue color in a Benedict’s test indicates the presence of aldehyde groups.

A) True

B) False

False

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47

Which of the following is involved in tertiary protein structure?

A) interactions between two different polypeptides

B) alpha helix

C) hydrophobic interactions

D) beta-pleated sheets

Hydrophobic interactions

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48

Which of the following is not true of proteins?

A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity

B) Their function depends n their three-dimensional shape

C) They have both functional and structural roles in the body

D) They appear to be the molecular carriers of genetic information

They appear to be the molecular carriers of genetic information

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49

Which of the following is involved in primary protein structure?

A) peptide bonds

B) salt bridges

C) hydrogen bonds

D) hydrophobic interactions

Peptide bonds

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50

A red blood cell will undergo crenation in ______.

A) hypertonic solution

B) hypotonic solution

C) isotonic solution

Hypertonic solution

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51
<p>This structure represents a saturated fatty acid.</p><p>A) True</p><p>B) False</p>

This structure represents a saturated fatty acid.

A) True

B) False

True

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52

Denaturation of a protein ______.

A) changes the primary structure of a protein

B) disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein

C) is always reversible

D) can only occur in a protein with quaternary structure

disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein

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53

A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is a ketone group, is classified as a(n) ______.

A) aldopentose

B) ketotetrose

C) ketopentose

D) aldohexose

Ketopentose

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54

The carbon atoms in a saturated hydrocarbons ______.

A) contain at least one double bond

B) contain a benzene ring

C) contain both a double and a triple bond

D) have only single bonds

E) contain at least one triple bond

Have only single bonds

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55

Introns are the only regions in genes that contain information for building proteins.

A) True

B) False

False

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56

The alpha helix of a protein is held together by ______ between two distant amino acids in a polypeptide.

A) double covalent bonds

B) disulfide bridges

C) hydrophobic interactions

D) hydrogen bonds

Hydrogen bonds

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57

In a disaccharide, two monosaccharides are joined by what kind of bond?

A) double

B) glycosidic

C) dehydration

D) peptide

Glycosidic

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58

A gene can best be defined as ______.

A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

B) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for synthesizing a polypeptide chain

C) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide

D) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long

a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for synthesizing a polypeptide chain

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59

In the process known as osmosis, __ moves through a semipermeable membrane into an area of ____ concentration.

A) solute, lower solute

B) solvent, lower solute

C) solvent, higher solvent

D) solvent, lower solvent

E) solute, higher solute

Solvent, lower solvent

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60

Which statement is false?

A) All lipids contain fatty acids

B) Lipids are found in the cell membrane

C) Lipids are soluble in organic solvents

D) There are many different types of lipids

E) Some hormones are lipids

All lipids contain fatty acids

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61

Galactose is a ______.

A) disaccharide

B) trisaccharide

C) monosaccharide

D) polysaccharide

Monosaccharide

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62

The structural formulas of all amino acids are the same except for the ______.

A) alpha carbon

B) ammonium group

C) carboxylate group

D) R goup

R group

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63
<p>What specific type of reaction is depicted in the image?</p>

What specific type of reaction is depicted in the image?

Dehydration synthesis

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64
<p>What specific type of reaction is depicted in the image?</p>

What specific type of reaction is depicted in the image?

Hydrolysis

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65
<p>Identify each part of the nucleotide (from left to right).</p><p>Is this a DNA or RNA nucleotide?</p>

Identify each part of the nucleotide (from left to right).

Is this a DNA or RNA nucleotide?

Phosphate, sugar, nitrogenous base. This is a DNA nucleotide.

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66
<p>What best describes this organic molecule?</p>

What best describes this organic molecule?

Monosaccharide

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67
<p>What best describes this organic molecule?</p>

What best describes this organic molecule?

Amino acid

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68
<p>What best describes this organic molecule?</p>

What best describes this organic molecule?

Triglyceride

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69

One DNA triplet codes for one amino acid.

A) True

B) False

True

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70

Active transport uses ATP to move particles from high to low particles.

A) True

B) False

False

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71

DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication.

A) True

B) False

False

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72

Polyribosomes produce multiple copies of that same protein.

A) True

B) False

True

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73

Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy.

A) True

B) False

True

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74

Editing and capping of the mRNA takes place in the cytoplasm.

A) True

B) False

False

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75

Proteins are not involved in determining the chemical and physical nature of cells.

A) True

B) False

False

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76

Transcription cannot begin until the RNA polymerase binds and unwinds the DNA double helix.

A) True

B) False

True

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77

New tRNA molecules enter the ribosomes and dock at the P site.

A) True

B) False

False

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78

Translation takes place in the nucleus of the cell.

A) True

B) False

False

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79

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is ______.

A) mRNA

B) ssRNA

C) tRNA

D) rRNA

tRNA

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80

An enzyme’s ____ binds a(n) ____ and forms a(n) ____.

A) substrate, enzyme-substrate, active site

B) active site, substrate, enzyme-substrate complex

C) product, substrate, active site

D) catalyst, active site, substrate

active site, substrate, enzyme-substrate complex

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81

Which of the following statements regarding integral proteins is false?

A) They have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

B) They are firmly inserted into the plasma membrane

C) They are loosely attached to the intra- or extracellular surface of plasma membrane

D) They can function as transport proteins, enzymes, or receptors

They are loosely attached to the intra- or extracellular surface of plasma membrane

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82

Which of the following is the correct order of events on Transcription?

A) DNA synthesis, mRNA synthesis, mRNA processing

B) Initiation, Elongation, Termination

C) Elongation, Processing, Migration

D) Initiation, Termination, Elongation

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

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83

If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, they what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?

A) ACGTT

B) GUACC

C) TGCAA

D) UGCAA

UGCAA

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84

_____ is the diffusion of a solvent through a _____ membrane from a _____ solution into a more _____ one.

A) Osmosis, permeable, concentrated, dilute

B) Osmosis, selectively permeable, dilute, concentrated

C) Active transport, hydrophilic, hypotonic, hypertonic

D) Active transport, hydrophobic, hypertonic, hypotonic

Osmosis, selectively permeable, dilute, concentrated

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85

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Catabolic reactions form large molecules from smaller molecules

B) Anabolic reactions reduce complex structures to simpler structures

C) Catabolic reactions absorb energy

D) Anabolic reactions form large molecules from smaller molecules

Anabolic reactions form large molecules from smaller molecules

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86

Starting at the gene, select the correct sequence of nucleotide information during protein sunthesis.

A) anticodon, triplet, codon

B) triplet, codon, anticodon

C) triplet, codon, amino acid

D) codon, triplet, anticodon

Triplet, codon, anticodon

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87

Once the transcription termination sequence has been reached the ______ and the pre-mRNA are released.

RNA polymerase

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88

______ is located outside cells and includes blood plasma and interstitial fluid.

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

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89

______ involves the passive movement of particles through channels or membrane carrier proteins.

Facilitated diffusion

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90
<p>Label each letter with the correct term.</p>

Label each letter with the correct term.

A) Stimulus B) Receptor C) Input/afferent pathway D) Output/efferent pathway E) Response

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91

______ prevents substrates from fitting into enzyme active sites.

Inhibitors

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92
<p>The fingers are ______ to the wrist.</p>

The fingers are ______ to the wrist.

Distal

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93
<p>The bridge of the nose is ______ to the left eye.</p>

The bridge of the nose is ______ to the left eye.

Medial

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94
<p>The stomach is ______ to the spine.</p>

The stomach is ______ to the spine.

Ventral

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95
<p>The lungs are ______ to the heart.</p>

The lungs are ______ to the heart.

Lateral

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96
<p>The upper arm is ______ to the forearm.</p>

The upper arm is ______ to the forearm.

Proximal

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97

What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?

A) to keep the body’s blood sugar level high

B) to maintain homeostasis

C) to regulate excretion via the kidneys

D) to control body movement

To maintain homeostasis

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98

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ______.

A) enhancement of labor contractions

B) blood calcium level regulation

C) regulating glucose levels in the blood

D) body temperature regulation

Enhancement of labor contractions

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99

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

A) transverse

B) median

C) frontal

D) sagittal

Frontal

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100

The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane ______.

A) covering individual lungs

B) lining the thoracic cavity

C) lining the abdominal cavity

D) covering the heart

Lining the thoracic cavity

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