EMT final exam - Chapters 1-41

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His "Glasgow coma scale" (GCS) score is:

a. 10

b. 12

c. 14

d. 13

d. 13

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a:

a. Falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading

b. Falsely low systolic and diastolic reading

c. Falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading

d. Falsely high systolic and diastolic reading

d. Falsely high systolic and diastolic reading

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:

a. Person and place

b. Time and place

c. Event and person

d. Day and event

d. Day and event

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:

a. One third length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

b. The entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease of the elbow

c. One half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow

d. Two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

d. Two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

a. Determine the need for a spinal motion restriction precaution

b. Identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

c. Find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life

d. Look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion

b. Identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:

a. Prepare the immobilization equipment

b. Look into the ears for gross bleeding

c. Assess the rest of the body

d. Maintain stabilization of the head

d. Maintain stabilization of the head

Capnography is used to:

a. Determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled

b. Assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues

c. Trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock

d. Assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin

a. Determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled

Cyanosis of the skin is cause by:

a. Increase in blood oxygen

b. Decrease of blood oxygen

c. Peripheral vasodilation

d. Venous vasoconstriction

b. Decrease of blood oxygen

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpitate the pulse at the ______ artery:

a. Radial

b. Femoral

c. Brachial

d. Carotid

a. Radial

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ BPM. And tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ BPM.

a. 40, 120

b. 60, 100

c. 30, 130

d. 50, 110

b. 60, 100

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:

a. 90% to 94%

b. 88% to 90%

c. 94% to 99%

d. 100%

c. 94% to 99%

The goal of the systematic head to toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

a. Locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

b. Definitively rule out significant internal injuries

c. Assess only the parts of the body that are injured

d. Detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries

a. Locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:

a. All patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport

b. Responsive medical patients and patients without significant MOI

c. Stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened

d. Patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

d. Patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass casualty incident should be determined after:

a. All the patients have been triaged

b. A physician arrives at the scene

c. Area hospitals have been notified

d. Medical control has been contacted

a. All the patients have been triaged

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

a. Confirm medical history findings

b. Repeat the primary assessment

c. Obtain updated vital signs

d. Reassess your interventions

b. Repeat the primary assessment

When you use the palpitation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:

a. Systolic blood pressure

b. Pulse pressure

c. Diastolic blood pressure

d. Cardiac output pressure

a. Systolic blood pressure

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has an airway:

a. Audible breathing

b. Unresponsiveness

c. Inspiratory stridor

d. Ability to speak

d. Ability to speak

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

a. Headache

b. Cyanosis

c. Hypertension

d. Tachycardia

a. Headache

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation:

a. "Does the pain stay in your chest?"

b. "Are there medications that you cannot take?"

c. "Does your mother have diabetes?"

d. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

c. "Does your mother have diabetes?"

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

a. Systematic head to toe examination

b. Assessment of oxygen saturation

c. Focused secondary assessment

d. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

a. Systematic head to toe examination

An effective team leader should:

A. help the team accomplish goals.

B. perform all difficult interventions.

C. command his or her team.

D. refrain from any direct patient care.

Help the team accomplish goals.

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:

A. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

B. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

C. she should contact EMR about the incident.

D. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

The patient had a reported syncopal episode.

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

A. discipline.

B. collaboration.

C. rigid protocols.

D. competition.

Collaboration.

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

A. Anchoring.

B. Streaming.

C. Overconfidence.

D. Bias.

Anchoring.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from fist patient discharge is called:

A. the continuum of of care.

B. patient care advocacy.

C. the standard of care.

D. the scope of practice.

The continuum of of care.

To be a great EMT, strive for:

A. foundational knowledge.

B. management work.

C. the chance to replace an EMR.

D. retraining.

Foundational knowledge.

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

A. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

C. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

D. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.

Does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A. Data interpretation.

B. Data gathering.

C. Team communication.

D. Planning

Data gathering.

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

A. Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

B. Use of mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

C. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

D. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

Use of mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Which of the following would the EMT most likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

A. Suction under direct laryngoscopy.

B. Preoxygenation with a BVM.

C. Placement of the endotracheal tube.

D. Visualization of the vocal cords.

Preoxygenation with a BVM.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:

A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.

B. a collapsible undercarriage.

C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb.

D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.

A. properly store

B. decontaminate

C. throw out

D. incinerate

decontaminate

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:

A. with multiple long bone injuries.

B. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

D. with a possible cervical spine injury.

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:Select one:

A. without a spinal injury.

B. with forearm lacerations.

C. who complains of nausea.

D. with a deformed humerus.

with a deformed humerus.

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:

A. injury to you or your patient.

B. causing patient anxiety or fear.

C. unnecessarily wasting time.

D. confusion among team members.

injury to you or your patient.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

A. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.

B. use a direct carry whenever possible.

C. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

D. flex at the waist instead of the hips.

keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:Select one:

A. flexing your body at the knees.

B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

C. the use of more than two EMTs.

D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?

A. Direct carry

B. Draw sheet method

C. Extremity carry

D. log roll

Draw sheet method

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.Select one:

A. five

B. four

C. six

D. three

four

which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?

semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

the first rule of safe lifting is to:

keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?

10-18 months

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:

Elasticity of the lungs decreases

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:

Increased surface area available for air exchange

a loss of respiratory muscle mass

increased stiffness of the thoracic cage

decreased residual volume

Increased surface area available for air exchange

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically:

70 bpm

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:

70 to 120 beats/min.

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?

An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's head

An infant's tongue is proportionally larger than an adult's tongue

The trachea of an infant is proportionally longer than an adult's trachea

The rib cage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's rib cage

An infant's tongue is proportionally larger than an adult's tongue

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?

The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly

Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons

Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer

Increased cholesterol levels in the middle age group often do not respond to exercise and diet

Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s

Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity

The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.

Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue

Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?

brainstem

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles; the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:

alveoli

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:

contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include:

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:

diffusion

Skeletal muscle is also called:

voluntary muscle

The axial skeleton is composed of the:

skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column

The carpal bones form the:

wrist

The central nervous system is composed of the:

brain and spinal cord

The elbow is an example of a ___ joint

hinge

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:

sinoatrial node

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:

capillaries

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:

pulmonary veins

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, from the:

coccyx

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:

myocardium

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are example of ___ anatomic structures.

midline

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?

pituitary

Which of the following is not a facial bone?

mastoid

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?

kidneys

White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by:

protecting the body from infection

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the _______ forearm.

A. Distal

B. Proximal

C. Dorsal

D. Superior

A. Distal

A diabetic patient has polydipsia, this means:

A. Has low blood sugar

B. Is excessively thirsty

C. Is unable to swallow

D. Urinates frequently

B. Is excessively thirsty

A fracture on the humerus just above the elbow would be described as:

A. Proximal elbow fracture

B. Proximal humerus fracture

C. Distal forearm facture

D. Distal humerus fracture

D. Distal humerus fracture

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

A. Medial

B. Proximal

C. Unilateral

D. Bilateral

D. Bilateral

A patient in semi reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the_______ position:

A. Prone

B. Supine

C. Fowler

D. Recovery

C. Fowler

A patient with a pneumothorax has a unilateral chest expansion. This mean:

A. His chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions

B. Both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales

C. Only one side of his chest rises when he inhales

D. Both sides of his chest are moving minimally

C. Only one side of his chest rises when he inhales

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum, this means that:

A. Her respiratory rate is rapid

B. She has excessive vomiting

C. She had frequent urination

D. Her unborn baby is very large

B. She has excessive vomiting

A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body sustained the initial injury:

A. Plantar

B. Ventral

C. Palmar

D. Dorsal

A. Plantar

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from the patient's leg stops bleeding, this is called:

A. Hematemesis

B. Hemiplegia.

C. Hemostasis

D. Hemolysis

C. Hemostasis

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body position:

A. Recumbent

B. Prone

C. Dorsal

D. Supine

B. Prone

In relation to the chest, the back is:

A. Ventral

B. Inferior

C. Anterior

D. Posterior

D. Posterior

Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:

A. Adduction

B. Abduction

C. Extension

D. Flexion

B. Abduction

The term "pericardiocentesis" means:

A. The removal of fluid from around the heart

B. Surgical repair of the sac around the heart

C. Narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart

D. A surgical opening made in the heart

A. The removal of fluid from around the heart

The topographic term used to describe the location of the body parts that are closer towards the midline of the body is:

A. Medial

B. Lateral

C. Midclavicular

D. Midaxillary

A. Medial

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal":

A. Palmar

B. Posterior

C. Anterior

D. Medial

B. Posterior

enlargement of the liver is called:

hepatomegaly

In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

A. distal.

B. medial.

C. lateral.

D. proximal.

proximal

the ________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles

apex

The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means:

a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

the topographic term used to describe parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:

inferior

A ________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency:

A. Repeater

B. Decoder

C. Scanner

D. Duplex

A. Repeater

A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

A. Witnessed by a notary

B. An informed refusal

C. Reported to the police

D. Authorized by a judge

B. An informed refusal

All information recorded on the PCR must be:

A. Typewritten or printed

B. A matter of public record

C. Considered confidential

D. Reflective of your opinion

C. Considered confidential

Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:

A. Base station

B. Repeater

C. Mobile radio

D. Multiplex

A. Base station

As you are wheeling a patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:

A. Respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician

B. Leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call

C. Place the patient in a high visibility area and then respond to the call

D. Inform the admissions clerk of the situation and the respond at once

A. Respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:

A. Maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible

B. Positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient

C. Using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands

D. Withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospitial

A. Maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible

Communicating with a hearing-impaired patient can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:

A. Elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

B. Placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips

C. Providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write their responses

D. Shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment

A. Elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all the following, except:

A. Screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols

B. Coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel

C. Selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel

D. Discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS units arrive

D. Discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS units arrive

Ethnocentrism is defined as:

A. Understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently

B. Considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of different cultures

C. Suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of their voice when answering a question

D. Subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe your values are more acceptable

B. Considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of different cultures