Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Exam 4

The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines:

Pathogenesis

An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury refers to:

Disease

The study of the cause of disease is termed:

Etiology

Common agents that cause disease include:

Bacteria, chemicals, and heat

A syndrome is best defined as:

Signs and symptoms that characterizes a specific abnormal disturbance

An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed:

Iatrogenic

Prognosis refers to:

The predicted course and outcome of the disease

Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered:

Destructive, lytic, and subtractive

The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines:

Epidemiology

Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are collected and reported by the:

National Center for Health Statistics

What are the leading caused of death in the US for adults aged 45 years and greater?

Heart disease and Malignant neoplasm

______________ reaction is used to describe the skin erythema that may occur from radiation treatment of a neoplasm

Iatrogenic

Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains __________ pairs of autosomal chromosomes, __________ sex chromosomes.

22, 2

An objective manifestation is known as a _________________, while a patient's perception is known as:

Sign/Symptom

A disease that does not produce symptoms. especially in the early stages, is termed:

Asymptomatic

Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as:

Congenital

A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 non-sex chromosomes is considered:

Autosomal

A sign is an objective manifestation that can be detected by the physician during clinical examination. What is not considered a sign?

Back aches

The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body's defenses best describes:

Virulence

Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as:

Metabolic

The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed to __________ node

Sentinel

The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best describes:

Invasion

Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed:

Carcinoma

In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the:

Size of the primary tumor

What imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors?

CT, PET, and MRI

In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with:

Immunotherapy

What is hypertrophy?

A generalized increase in cell size

What is atrophy?

A generalized decrease in cell size

What is metaplasia?

Conversion of one cell type to another

What is hyperplasia?

An increase in the number of cells

What is dysplasia?

Abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells

A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.

False

A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an "I" is considered well differentiated.

True

Morbidity rate is the:

# of lives altered by a particular disease

Removal of dead cells and materials, which is essential in the healing process, is called:

Debridement

What type of disease classification is diabetes?

Metabolic

What pathology is not attributed to the process of aging?

Osteomyelitis

What disease process results in new tissue growth?

Neoplastic disease

Cells that are classified as _____________ have a higher probability of malignancy

Undifferentiated

What is the most common disturbance of fluid imbalance?

Dehydration

Palliative treatment is generally used for terminally ill patients.

True

A patient placed in a cast for 4 months would experience what type of alteration in his or her quadriceps muscle?

Atrophy

What types of cells are responsible for bone growth and thickening, ossification, and regeneration?

Osteoblasts

A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small micro-calcifications of the sub-acromial space. What is the differential diagnosis?

Calcific tendinitis

What anatomic structure is responsible for the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes?

Red bone marrow

What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a "soap bubble" appearance?

Giant cell tumor

Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?

Increase

Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?

No change

What neoplasm involves a nidus?

Osteoid osteoma

What is a congenital disease of the skeletal system?

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:

Pars interarticularis

Diploe is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?

Skull

A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient?

MRI

The bony structure most commonly encountering metastatic disease from primary tumors is:

Spine

What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factors for a cervical rib?

Transitional vertebrae

What anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis?

Carpals

"Brittle bone" disease is also known as:

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Congenital clubfoot is also known as:

Talipes

The most common form of arthritis is:

Osteoarthritis

Marie-Strumpell disease or "bamboo spine" is a symptom of the pathology known as:

Ankylosing spondylitis

The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology:

Spondylolisthesis

What type of arthritis that is triggered when a build of uric acid escalates:

Gouty arthritis

What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas?

PET scan

Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as?

Potts disease

The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is:

Nuclear medicine

Up to 80% of all scoliosis cases are:

Idiopathic

A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis?

Prepatellar bursitis

A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as:

Chrondrosarcoma

What are the radiographic appearance of a "soap bubble"?

Giant cell tumor

What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst?

Osteosarcoma

What pathology has the radiographic appearance of "worm-eaten"?

Tuberculosis

What congenital skeletal pathology involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conductive for life?

Anencephaly

What imaging modalities would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Radiography and sonography

A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If that procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate?

Decrease uptake on the right foot (cold spot)

A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:

Loss of lordosis

A freely movable joint is classified as:

Diarthrodial

A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What radiographic procedure should be obtained initially?

Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs

Osteogenesis imperfecta requires what type of technique change?

Decrease

The primary site of ossification is the:

Diaphysis

The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical.

True

What anatomic structure is not part of the respiratory system?

Esophagus

What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?

Visceral pleura

What diagnostic exam is most frequently performed in the Rad dept.?

Chest exams

Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth?

Maxillary and Ethmoid

To decrease patient dose while performing chest radiography, which technical factors can be increased?

kVp

What anatomic structure is not located in the mediastinum?

Thyroid gland

Which patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?

Erect position

To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?

Left lateral

What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?

Poor exposure factors

What chest position will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?

Left lateral

What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?

AP lordotic

What anatomic part structure presents radiographically as a "Sail Sign"?

Thymus gland

What pathologic condition occurs as a result of disruption in the esophagus or trachea and air trapped in the mediastinum?

Mediastinal emphysema

Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy?

CT

Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions bc it captures information regarding metabolic activity?

Nuclear medicine

What type of tube would be inserted into a patient with a hemothorax?

Chest tube

Diagnosis and management of heart failure, resulting from myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, represent the most common use of what type of catheter?

Swan Ganz catheter

What term best describes the inability to move air in and out of the lungs, with increased blood carbon dioxide content?

Hypercapnia

What is not a common cause of respiratory failure?

Tachypnea

Cystic fibrosis is classified as an ____________ disorder?

Hereditary