Pediatrics Study Guide – Key Concepts & Disorders

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A comprehensive set of Question-and-Answer flashcards covering core theories, developmental milestones, neonatal and pediatric conditions, orthopedic and neuromotor impairments, legislation, and intervention principles from the Pediatric Study Guide lectures.

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103 Terms

1
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What are Wessel’s “rules of threes” for diagnosing infant colic?

Crying ≥3 hours per day, ≥3 days per week, in infants aged 3 weeks to 4 months.

2
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According to Rome IV, what two criteria must be present for infant colic?

Long periods of irritability/crying in infants <5 months with no failure to thrive, fever, or illness.

3
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Neural-Maturationist Theory states that motor skills unfold primarily because of _ maturation.

Central nervous system

4
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In the Neural-Maturationist hierarchical model, higher nervous-system levels control more _ behaviors.

Complex

5
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Which pediatric PT examination tool is rooted in the Neural-Maturationist perspective?

Assessment of reflex development to predict motor function.

6
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List Piaget’s four stages of the Developmental Cognitive Theory in order.

Sensorimotor (0-2 yr), Pre-operational (2-7 yr), Concrete Operational (7-11 yr), Formal Operational (≥11 yr).

7
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Define ‘assimilation’ in Piagetian terms.

Integrating new experiences into an existing schema.

8
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Define ‘accommodation’ in Piagetian terms.

Adjusting existing schemata to incorporate new experiences.

9
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At what age is the A-not-B error typically overcome?

11–12 months.

10
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Means-end problem solving emerges mainly in which year of life?

The first year.

11
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Motor Learning Cognitive Theory distinguishes between closed-loop and _-loop control.

Open

12
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What are the four elements stored in a Generalized Motor Program (GMP)?

Initial conditions, response specifications, sensory consequences, and response outcome.

13
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Recall schema predicts parameters; recognition schema predicts expected consequences.

Motor; sensory

14
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Dynamic Systems Theory views motor development as the interaction of multiple _ that self-organize.

Subsystems

15
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In Dynamic Systems Theory, a ‘control parameter’ is defined as…

A variable whose change causes the entire system to transition to a new movement pattern.

16
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A deep attractor well represents a movement pattern that is _ to change.

Stable / hard

17
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Bernstein’s ‘degrees of freedom problem’ refers to…

The challenge of controlling the body’s many joint and muscle options during movement.

18
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Name Bernstein’s three stages of motor learning.

Freezing DOF, Freeing DOF, Exploiting mechanics.

19
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Gestational age is measured from the _ day of the last menstrual period.

First

20
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Around which week post-fertilization does organogenesis begin?

Approximately 3 weeks.

21
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Too much amniotic fluid is called ; too little is called .

Polyhydramnios; oligohydramnios

22
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Which fetal presentation is considered ideal for birth?

Occiput anterior (head-down, face toward sacrum).

23
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Root and Sucking reflexes normally weaken by what ages?

Root reflex ~3 months; sucking-swallowing ~5–7 months.

24
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A positive Babinski beyond 24 months suggests damage to which tract?

Corticospinal tract.

25
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At what age should an infant typically be able to sit without arm support?

Around 6 months.

26
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Persistence of ATNR beyond 6 months is considered a _ flag.

Red

27
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According to standard milestones, when do most infants walk independently?

Around 12 months.

28
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Perception–Action theory emphasizes the concept of _, meaning perceived action possibilities.

Affordances

29
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In perception–action research, experienced 12-month crawlers avoid cliffs whereas novice 12-month _ usually do not.

Walkers

30
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Define ‘appropriate for gestational age’ (AGA).

Birth weight between the 10th and 90th percentiles for gestational age.

31
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Respiratory Distress Syndrome in preterm infants is primarily due to deficiency of _.

Surfactant

32
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Patent ductus arteriosus normally closes within _ days in full-term infants.

2–3

33
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Stage 3 of Retinopathy of Prematurity is characterized by…

Neovascularization extending into the vitreous (threshold disease).

34
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Grade IV intraventricular hemorrhage involves bleeding into the ventricles plus the _.

Brain parenchyma

35
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Skin-to-skin (kangaroo) care benefits infants by reducing _ infections and improving weight gain.

Nosocomial

36
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Wolff’s Law states that bone remodels in response to _ stress.

Mechanical

37
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Hueter-Volkmann’s Law: Increased compressive forces on the physis _ growth.

Retard

38
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Normal femoral anteversion decreases from ~40° at birth to about _° by adolescence.

15–20

39
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The Pavlik harness holds the hip in flexion and abduction to treat _.

Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

40
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Osgood-Schlatter disease involves traction apophysitis of the _.

Tibial tubercle

41
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta stems from mutations affecting which type of collagen?

Type I collagen.

42
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Name two hallmark features of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis.

Persistent joint swelling and morning stiffness.

43
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Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita is characterized by at least _ severe joint contractures present at birth.

Two

44
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Salter–Harris type V fractures carry the highest risk of…

Growth plate arrest.

45
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Spasticity is defined as a _-dependent increase in muscle tone due to hyper-excitable stretch reflexes.

Velocity

46
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Botulinum toxin reduces spasticity by blocking release of which neurotransmitter?

Acetylcholine

47
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Selective Dorsal Rhizotomy works by severing selected _ rootlets.

Sensory

48
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Erb’s palsy typically involves which spinal nerve roots?

C5–C6

49
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A ‘waiter’s tip’ posture indicates injury to the _ portion of the brachial plexus.

Upper (Erb’s)

50
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The presence of Horner’s syndrome suggests avulsion of which nerve root?

T1

51
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Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a chronic obstructive lung disease most often caused by _.

Mechanical ventilation and oxygen toxicity in premature infants.

52
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Typical croup presents with which classic radiographic sign?

Steeple sign (subglottic narrowing).

53
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CFTR gene mutations cause thick mucus and recurrent infections in which disease?

Cystic Fibrosis

54
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Congenital muscular torticollis involves unilateral shortening of which muscle?

Sternocleidomastoid (SCM).

55
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Name the three clinical types of congenital muscular torticollis.

Postural, Muscular, SCM Nodule.

56
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Deformational plagiocephaly commonly co-occurs with _.

Congenital muscular torticollis.

57
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Attention that involves shifting focus back and forth between tasks is called ____ attention.

Alternating

58
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In ADHD, which subtype is more common in girls?

Predominantly inattentive.

59
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DSM-5 criterion for Developmental Coordination Disorder requires motor deficits that appear in _ development.

Early

60
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The gold-standard motor test for DCD screening is the _.

Movement Assessment Battery for Children-2 (M-ABC-2).

61
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Autism Spectrum Disorder is diagnosed by deficits in social communication plus ____ behaviors.

Restricted and repetitive

62
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‘Toe-walking’ and reduced postural reflexes are early motor signs that may be seen in _.

Autism Spectrum Disorder

63
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IDEA Part C covers which age group?

Birth to 3 years.

64
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The document guiding services for a school-aged child under IDEA Part B is called an _.

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

65
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Section 504 plans are intended for students whose disability substantially limits a ____ life activity.

Major

66
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Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy results from a mutation in the gene encoding _.

Dystrophin

67
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Gower’s sign indicates weakness in which muscle group?

Hip and trunk extensors (proximal muscles).

68
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Name one medication class that can slow functional decline in DMD.

Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone, deflazacort).

69
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At what Vignos grade does a child with DMD typically lose the ability to walk?

Grade 8 (confined to bed).

70
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In neonatal care, which arousal state is optimal for physical therapy interventions?

Quiet Alert (state 4).

71
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Finger splaying and yawning are considered _ signals in preterm infants.

Stress

72
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Which NICU diagnosis is characterized by inflammatory destruction of the intestine and may require surgical resection?

Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC)

73
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Sarnat Stage 2 hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy has what prognosis if symptoms last >7 days?

Poor; likely abnormal outcomes.

74
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Which fetal behavior typically appears around 26–28 weeks gestation?

Fetal eye opening.

75
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List the four core concepts of the Perception–Action approach.

Contact with support, orientation to gravity, variability, adaptability.

76
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Somites differentiate into sclerotome and _.

Dermomyotome

77
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Primary myotubes predominantly become type _ muscle fibers.

I (slow-twitch)

78
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Hueter-Volkmann’s principle is often applied surgically using tension band plates to modulate growth in _.

Scoliosis

79
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In spastic cerebral palsy, which GMFCS level describes children who walk without limitations but with reduced speed and coordination?

Level I

80
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A child who requires a power wheelchair for most mobility but may stand with support is likely GMFCS level _.

IV

81
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What are the four lesions composing Tetralogy of Fallot?

Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy.

82
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The arterial switch operation permanently corrects which cyanotic heart defect?

Transposition of the Great Arteries.

83
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An open neural tube defect with protrusion of meninges and neural tissue is called _.

Myelomeningocele

84
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Hydrocephalus in spina bifida is commonly managed with placement of a _.

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

85
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Tethered cord syndrome may present later with progressive weakness and worsening _ control.

Bladder/Bowel

86
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Spinal muscular atrophy type 1 is also known as ____ disease and has onset before 6 months.

Werdnig–Hoffmann

87
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The medication Riluzole or the gene therapy onasemnogene (Zolgensma) targets which pediatric neuromuscular disorder?

Spinal Muscular Atrophy

88
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In SMA management, standing frames are recommended primarily to improve _.

Bone density and contracture prevention.

89
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Clonus differs from rigidity because clonus is ____ and rhythmic.

Repetitive

90
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Baclofen is a GABA-B agonist given orally or intrathecally to reduce _.

Spasticity

91
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Phenol neurolysis is typically used to reduce spasticity in which muscle group of the hip?

Hip adductors via obturator nerve.

92
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The AMS (Active Movement Scale) grades muscle function in infants with _ palsy.

Brachial Plexus

93
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Tripod positioning is instinctively adopted by children experiencing severe ____ distress.

Respiratory

94
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SCM tightness causes head tilt toward the affected side and chin rotation toward the ____ side.

Opposite

95
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Earliest intervention for torticollis focuses on prolonged, gentle _ stretching of the SCM.

Passive

96
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In Dunn’s sensory processing framework, a child who actively seeks intense sensory input is classified as _.

Sensation Seeking

97
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An IFSP is reviewed at least every _ months.

Six

98
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FERPA grants parents the right to inspect and amend their child’s _ records.

Educational

99
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In DMD, night splints are most often applied to prevent contracture of which muscle-tendon unit?

Gastrocnemius-soleus (ankle plantarflexors).

100
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North Star Ambulatory Assessment is specific to what disease?

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy