Network+ N10-008 All-in-One Exam Guide

Where does (did) a hub send data?

A. Only to the receiving system

B. Only to the sending system

C. To all the systems connected to the hub

D. Only to the server

To all the systems connected to the hub; A hub sends data to all the systems connected to it.

What uniquely identifies every NIC?

A. IP address

B. Media access control address

C. ISO number

D. Packet ID number

Media Access Control (MAC) address

What Windows utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system?

A. ipconfig /all

B. ipcfg /all

C. ping

D. mac

ipconfig /all

A MAC address is known as a(n) __________ address.

A. IP

B. logical

C. physical

D. OEM

physical

A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called __________.

A. segments

B. sections

C. frames

D. layers

frames; Data is sent in discrete chunks called frames. Networks use frames to keep any one NIC from hogging the wire.

The MAC address of which of the following begins a frame?

A. Receiving system

B. Sending system

C. Network

D. Router

Receiving system; The frame begins with the MAC address of the receiving NIC, followed by

the MAC address of the sending NIC, followed, in turn, by type of encapsulated data, the data, and FCS.

A frame ends with a special bit called the frame check sequence (FCS). What does the FCS do?

A. Cycles data across the network

B. Verifies that the MAC addresses are correct

C. Verifies that the data arrived correctly

D. Verifies that the IP address is correct

Verifies that the data arrived correctly; The data is followed by a special bit of checking information called the frame check sequence, which the receiving NIC uses to verify that the data arrived correctly.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address?

A. 0-255

B. 00-50-56-A3-04-0C

C. SBY3M7

D. 192.168.4.13

00-50-56-A3-04-0C; A MAC address is a 48-bit value, and no two NICs ever share the same MAC address—ever.

Which layer of the OSI model controls the segmentation and reassembly of data?

A. Application layer

B. Presentation layer

C. Session layer

D. Transport layer

Transport layer; controls the segmentation and reassembly of data.

Which layer of the OSI model keeps track of a system's connections to send the right response to the right computer?

A. Application layer

B. Presentation layer

C. Session layer

D. Transport layer

Session layer; keeps track of a system's connections to ensure that it sends the right response to the right computer.

Which of the following topologies required termination?

A. Star

B. Bus

C. Mesh

D. Ring

bus; In a bus topology, all computers connected to the network via a main line. The cable had to be terminated at both ends to prevent signal reflection.

Star-bus is an example of a _______________ topology.

A. transitional

B. system

C. hybrid

D. rampant

hybrid; Star-bus is a hybrid topology because it uses a star physical topology and a bus

signal topology.

Of the topologies listed, which one is the most fault-tolerant?

A. Point-to-point

B. Bus

C. Star

D. Ring

Star; only star topology has any fault tolerance.

What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?

A. Segmentation

B. Map

C. Topology

D. Protocol

Topology

Coaxial cables all have a(n) _______________ rating.

A. resistance

B. watt

C. speed

D. Ohm

Ohm; All coaxial cables have an Ohm rating. RG-59 and RG-6 both are rated at 75 Ohms.

Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable?

A. RJ-45

B. RG-6

C. BNC

D. Barrel

RG-6

Which network topology connected nodes with a ring of cable?

A. Star

B. Bus

C. Ring

D. Mesh

Ring

Which network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks?

A. Star

B. Bus

C. Ring

D. Mesh

Mesh; for the most part is unique to wireless networks

Which of the following is a duplex fiber-optic connection?

A. LC

B. RJ-45

C. ST

D. SC

LC; Of the options given, only the LC connector is designed for duplex fiber-optic.

What is the most common category of UTP used in new cabling installations?

A. Cat 3

B. Cat 5e

C. Cat 6

D. Cat 7

Cat 6; although Cat 6a and Cat 7 are gaining in popularity.

Ethernet hubs took an incoming packet and _______________ it out to the other connected ports.

A. amplified

B. repeated

C. filtered

D. distorted

repeated; Hubs were nothing more than multiport repeaters.

What is at the beginning of the Ethernet frame?

A. MAC address

B. Length

C. Preamble

D. CRC

preamble

What type of bus did 10BASE-T use?

A. Bus

B. Ring

C. Star bus

D. Bus ring

Star bus

What was the maximum distance that could separate a 10BASE-T node from its hub?

A. 50 meters

B. 100 meters

C. 185 meters

D. 200 meters

100 meters

When used for Ethernet, unshielded twisted pair uses what type of connector?

A. RG-58

B. RJ-45

C. RJ-11

D. RS-232

RJ-45; UTP cable uses an RJ-45 connector when used for Ethernet.

RG-58 is the type of coaxial cable used with 10BASE-2. RJ-11 is the standard four-wire connector

used for regular phone lines.

RS-232 is a standard for serial connectors.

What was the maximum number of nodes that could be connected to a

10BASE-T hub?

A. 1024

B. 500

C. 100

D. 185

1024; 10BASE-T hub could connect no more than 1024 nodes (computers).

Which of the following is not true of crossover cables?

A. They are a type of twisted pair cabling.

B. They reverse the sending and receiving wire pairs.

C. They are used to connect switches.

D. Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.

Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard; One end of a crossover cable is wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard;

the other is wired according to the TIA/EIA 568A standard. This is what crosses the wire pairs and enables two switches in early Ethernet to communicate.

Which of the following connectors were used by 10BASE-FL cable? (Select two.)

A. SC

B. RJ-45

C. RJ-11

D. ST

SC, ST; 10BASE-FL used two types of fiber-optic connectors called SC and ST connectors.

Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. Hubs

B. Media converters

C. UTP cables

D. Switches

Switches; The Spanning Tree Protocol is unique to switches.

What device directs packets based on MAC addresses?

A. Router

B. Hub

C. Repeater

D. Switch

Switch; A switch uses MAC addresses to direct traffic only to the appropriate recipient.

With 100BASE-T, what is the maximum distance between the switch and the node?

A. 1000 meters

B. 400 meters

C. 100 meters

D. 150 meters

100 meters

What type of cable and connector does 100BASE-FX use?

A. Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectors

B. STP Cat 6 with RJ-45 connectors

C. Single-mode fiber with MT-RJ connectors

D. UTP Cat 5e with RJ-45 connectors

Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectors

Which of the following connector would you typically find with a 40 GbE installation?

A. LC

B. SFP

C. QSFP+

D. XSFP+

QSFP+ connectors

What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe?

A. 1000BASE-LX

B. 1000BASE-T

C. 100BASE-T

D. 1000BASE-SX

1000BASE-T; IEEE 802.3ab is the 1000BASE-T standard

What is the big physical difference between 1000BASE-SX and 100BASE-FX?

A. 1000BASE-SX commonly uses the LC connector, whereas 100BASE-FX frequently uses the SC connector.

B. 1000BASE-SX is single-mode, whereas 100BASE-FX is multimode.

C. 1000BASE-SX uses the ST connector exclusively.

D. There is no difference.

1000BASE-SX commonly uses the LC connector, whereas 100BASE-FX frequently uses the SC connector.

What is the maximum distance for 1000BASE-LX without repeaters?

A. 1 mile

B. 2500 meters

C. 20,000 feet

D. 5000 meters

5000 meters (or 5 kilometers)

What is a big advantage to using fiber-optic cable?

A. Fiber is common glass; therefore, it's less expensive.

B. Fiber is not affected by EMI.

C. Making custom cable lengths is easier with fiber.

D. All that orange fiber looks impressive in the network closet.

Fiber is not affected by EMI (Electromagnetic interference); fiber uses glass and light.

How many wire pairs does 1000BASE-T use?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

4; 1000BASE-T uses all four pairs of wires.

What is the standard connector for the 10 GbE fiber standard?

A. ST

B. SC

C. MT-RJ

D. There is no standard.

There is no standard connector; the 10 GbE committee has left this up to the manufacturers.

What is the maximum cable length of 10GBASE-T on Cat 6?

A. 55 meters

B. 100 meters

C. 20 meters

D. 70 meters

55 meters

Aside from outright breakage, what's the primary worry with bending a fiber-optic cable too much?

A. Attenuation

B. Bonding

C. Light leakage

D. Near-end crosstalk

Light Leakage; Bending a fiber-optic cable too much can cause light leakage and thus loss or degradation of signal.

Which of the following enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much better network bandwidth?

A. Linking

B. Port aggregation

C. SLI

D. Xing

Port aggregation; (or bonding or link aggregation) is the process of using multiple NICs as a single connection, thus increasing bandwidth.

How many pairs of wires are in a Cat 6-rated cable?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. It doesn't specify.

4; The Cat 6 rating requires four pairs of wires.

A(n) _______________ organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the

telecommunications room.

A. rack

B. patch panel

C. outlet

D. 110 jack

patch panel

Which of the following would never be seen in an equipment rack?

A. Patch panel

B. UPS

C. PC

D. All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.

All these devices may be found in equipment racks.

What are patch cables used for? (Select two.)

A. To connect different telecommunications rooms.

B. To connect the patch panel to the switch.

C. They are used as crossover cables.

D. To connect PCs to outlet boxes.

To connect the patch panel to the switch and to connect PCs to outlet boxes.

Which of the following network technologies use UTP cabling in a star topology?

A. Crosstalk

B. Fiber optics

C. 1000BASE-SX

D. 1000BASE-T

1000BASE-T; uses UTP cabling in a star topology.

Your first day on the job, you get a call from the owner complaining that her network connection is down. A quick check of the central switch verifies that it's in good working order, as is the boss's PC. As luck would have it, your supervisor calls at just that time and tells you not to worry; she'll be by in a jiffy with her TDR to help root out the problem. What is she talking about?

A. Tune-domain resonator, her network tone generator

B. Time-detuning resonator, her network tester

C. Time-domain reflectometer, her network tester

D. Time-detail resource, her network schematic

Time-domain reflectometer, her network tester; TDR is the generic term for a decent network tester that can determine locations of cable breaks, among other things.

What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables?

(Select two.)

A. Tone aggregator

B. Tone binder

C. Tone generator

D. Tone probe

Tone generator and tone probe; they work together to enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables.

Rack-mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?

A. Mbps

B. MBps

C. Inches

D. U

U; Rack-mounted equipment uses a height measurement known as a unit (U).

What is the result of converting 11110000.10111001.00001000.01100111 to

dotted decimal notation?

A. 4.5.1.5

B. 240.185.8.103

C. 15.157.16.230

D. 103.8.185.240

240.185.8.103 is the result of the conversion to dotted decimal notation.

Eric sits down at a client's Windows computer that's having some network connectivity issues. He wants to start troubleshooting by viewing both the system's IP address and MAC address. What command should he use?

A. ifconfig

B. ip addr

C. ipconfig

D. ipconfig /all

In Windows, the ipconfig /all command and switch will show both the IP address and the MAC address of a system.

What is the result of converting 192.168.0.1 to binary?

A. 11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001

B. 11000000.10101000.00000000.10000000

C. 11000000.10101000.00000000.1

D. 11.10101.0.1

11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001 is the binary conversion of 192.168.0.1.

Which of the following describe IPv4? (Select three.)

A. Uses decimal, not hexadecimal numbers

B. Uses periods, not colons, as separators

C. Uses four octets

D. Uses eight sets of characters

IPV4 uses decimal numbers, uses periods as separators, and has four octets.

Which of the following are not valid IP addresses to assign to a Windows-based system? (Select two.)

A. 10.1.1.1/24

B. 127.0.0.1/24

C. 250.250.250.255/24

D. 192.168.0.1/24

The special reserved IP address 127.0.0.1 is called the loopback address and is used for testing, not assigning to computers. The IP address 250.250.250.255 falls in the Class E range, which isn't assigned to hosts.

Phyllis has a service ticket for one of the latest Apple Macs that's having network connectivity problems. What command could she use to quickly see the IP address and MAC address for that computer?

A. ifconfig

B. ip addr

C. ipconfig

D. ipconfig /all

Using the ifconfig command on a macOS system shows the system's IP address and MAC address.

7. Which of the following is a valid Class C IP address?

A. 50.50.50.50

B. 100.100.100.100

C. 192.168.0.254

D. 250.250.250.250

The address 192.168.0.254 falls within the range of Class C addresses because it starts with an octet from 192 through 223.

What processes are used to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into

multiple smaller groups? (Select two.)

A. CIDR

B. ping

C. Subnetting

D. Subnitting

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) and subnetting enable you to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into multiple smaller groups called subnets.

Which statements about subnet masks are true? (Select two.)

A. Every network client has a unique subnet mask.

B. Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask.

C. A subnet mask consists of a string of zeroes followed by a string of ones.

D. A subnet mask consists of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes.

Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask. Subnet masks consist of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes.

In which order are packets created and sent when a client requests an IP address from a DHCP server?

A. DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK

B. DHCP Discover, DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK

C. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP Discover, DHCP ACK

D. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK, DHCP Discover

DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK (remember DORA) is the correct order.

What is a router?

A. A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address

B. A device that separates your computers from the Internet

C. A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple computers

D. A synonym for a firewall

A router is a piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address.

Routers must use the same type of connection for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or DOCSIS to DOCSIS.

A. True

B. False

False; a router can interconnect different Layer 2 technologies.

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?

A. Static address translation

B. Natural address translation

C. Computed public address translation

D. Port address translation

Port address translation, commonly known as PAT, enables you to share a single public IP address with many computers.

Given the following routing table:

Destination Subnet Mask Gateway Interface

10.11.12.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 LAN

64.165.5.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 WAN

0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.165.5.1 WAN

where would a packet with the address 64.165.5.34 be sent?

A. To the default gateway on interface WAN.

B. To the 10.11.12.0/24 network on interface LAN.

C. To the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN.

D. Nowhere; the routing table does not have a route for that address.

It would be sent to the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN.

Which of the following is an EGP?

A. BGP

B. IGP

C. EIGRP

D. IS-IS

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol.

What dynamic routing protocol uses link state advertisements to exchange information about networks?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. IS-IS

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) uses link state advertisement (LSA) packets to exchange information about networks.

What is Area 0 called in OSPF?

A. Local Area

B. Primary Zone

C. Trunk

D. Backbone

Area 0 is called the backbone area.

Which of the following is not a name for a serial cable that you use to configure a router?

A. Console cable

B. Yost cable

C. Rollover cable

D. Null modem cable

Null modem cable; the Yost cable, which was invented to standardize the serial console interface to connect to the router console port, is also known as a rollover or console cable.

When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network.

A. True

B. False

True; never plug a new router into an existing network.

The traceroute utility is useful for which purpose?

A. Configuring routers remotely

B. Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination

C. Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address

D. Fixing the computer's local routing table

The traceroute utility is useful for discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address.

What is the session information—IP address, port number, and Layer 4 protocol—held in memory called? (Select two.)

A. Endpoint

B. Port

C. Segment

D. Session

E. Socket

The session information held in memory is called an endpoint or socket.

Which of the following are key benefits of Web-based mail? (Select two.)

A. You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook, to download your e-mail.

B. You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection.

C. It is completely spam-free.

D. It is great for creating throw-away accounts.

You can access a Web-based e-mail account from any browser on any machine connected to the Internet. These accounts are great for creating throwaway e-mail addresses.

A TLS URL connection starts with which prefix?

A. http

B. www

C. ftp

D. https

URLs (Uniform Resource Locators) that use a TLS (Transport Layer Security) connection start with https (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) instead of http.

Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (Select two.)

A. Windows comes with preinstalled SSH and Telnet clients.

B. SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.

C. Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool.

D. SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.

SSH encrypts data and is more secure than Telnet. Also, SSH uses port 22, whereas Telnet uses port 23.

Why might you use the netstat utility?

A. To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers

B. To see your IP address and configuration details

C. To see the endpoints of your sessions

D. To issue commands to a remote server

Use netstat to see the endpoints of your sessions.

Which protocol enables synchronization of communication among connected computing devices?

A. FTP

B. IMAP4

C. NTP

D. TFTP

Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables synchronization of communication.

Port 143 (IMAP4) is what kind of port?

A. Well-known

B. Registered

C. Ephemeral

D. Reserved

Ports 0-1023 are well-known ports.

What port does passive FTP use?

A. 20

B. 21

C. 23

D. 25

Passive FTP only uses port 21 and a random port. Active FTP uses ports 20 and 21.

Which of the following protocols are used to retrieve e-mail from servers? (Select two.)

A. IMAP4

B. ICMP

C. IGMP

D. POP3

IMAP4 and POP3 are used to retrieve e-mail.

Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (Select three.)

A. -a shows all used ports.

B. -n shows port numbers and IP addresses.

C. -o shows the process ID.

D. -s shows the application name.

-a shows all used ports; -n shows port numbers and IP addresses; and -o shows the process ID.

Which DNS component performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address?

A. FQDN

B. ICANN

C. Name server

D. Resolver

The resolver performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address.

Which record type defines the primary name server in charge of a zone?

A. A

B. AAAA

C. NS

D. SOA

The SOA (Start of Authority) record defines the primary name server in charge of a zone.

What command do you run to see the DNS cache on a Windows system?

A. ping /showdns

B. ipconfig /showdns

C. ipconfig /displaydns

D. ping /displaydns

To see the DNS cache on a Windows system, run the command ipconfig / displaydns at a command prompt.

What's the process through which records propagate among name servers?

A. hosts file

B. Recursive transfer

C. Resolver cache

D. Zone transfer

A zone transfer is the process through which records propagate among name servers.

Which record type holds the IPv6 address for a host?

A. A

B. AAAA

C. A6

D. SOA

AAAA records hold IPv6 addresses for hosts.

Which record type acts like an alias, returning an FQDN rather than an IP address?

A. A

B. CNAME

C. MX

D. SOA

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record acts like an alias, returning an FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) rather than an

IP address.

Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail?

A. A record

B. CNAME record

C. MX record

D. SMTP record

The MX (Mail Exchange) record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail.

Running which command enables you to clear the DNS cache?

A. ipconfig

B. ipconfig /all

C. ipconfig /dns

D. ipconfig /flushdns

Running the command ipconfig /flushdns clears the DNS cache.

Running which command enables you to query the zone of a DNS server?

A. ipconfig

B. nslookup

C. ping

D. xdns

The tool to use for querying DNS server zones is nslookup.

Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain?

A. Forward lookup zone

B. Canonical zone

C. MX record

D. SMTP record

A DNS (Domain Name System) server stores the IP addresses and FQDNs (Fully Qualified Domain Names) for the computers within a

domain in the forward lookup zone (and reverse lookup zone as well).

Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called?

A. Encoded key

B. Symmetric key

C. Single key

D. Synthetic key

Symmetric-key encryption uses the same key.

A(n) _______________ cipher encrypts the plaintext one bit at a time.

A. block

B. forwarding

C. stream

D. asymmetric

A stream cipher encrypts one bit at a time.

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?

A. Public

B. Private

C. Both

D. Depends on who sends the data

You send someone a public key that he or she, in turn, encrypts. The private

key decrypts it.

The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called _______________.

A. PKI

B. authentication

C. locking

D. nonrepudiation

This is the definition of nonrepudiation.

A hash function is by definition a _______________.

A. complex function

B. PKI function

C. one-way function

D. systematic function

Hash functions must be one-way. They should be complex, but complexity is

not a requirement.

Which of the following is a hash function?

A. SHA-256

B. RC4

C. AES

D. BMX

Of the choices listed, only SHA-256 is a hash function.

In order to have a PKI you must have a(n) _______________.

A. Web server

B. Web of trust

C. root authority

D. unsigned certificate

A public-key infrastructure (PKI) must have a root authority.

Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity?

A. MAC

B. DAC

C. RBAC

D. VAC

Mandatory access control (MAC) must use a label to define sensitivity.

If you see some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard is running?

A. PPP

B. RADIUS

C. MS-CHAP

D. TACACS+

RADIUS uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813.

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?

A. PAP

B. RADIUS

C. 802.1X

D. Kerberos

All Kerberos tickets are timestamped.