Honors Biology: Cellular Respiration, Genetics, and Evolution A

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96 Terms

1
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What is the primary purpose of oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration?

Generates most of the ATP formed by cellular respiration.

2
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What process begins the oxidation of glucose?

Glycolysis.

3
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Where does glycolysis occur?

Outside the mitochondrion.

4
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How many ATPs are produced by glycolysis per glucose?

Four ATPs, but two ATPs are used to initiate the process.

5
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What does oxidative phosphorylation oxidize to produce NAD+ and FAD?

NADH and FADH2.

6
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In which part of the mitochondrion is the citric acid cycle carried out?

In the matrix of the mitochondrion.

7
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What is produced during oxidative phosphorylation when electrons and hydrogen combine with O2?

Water (H2O).

8
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What is the role of ATP synthase in oxidative phosphorylation?

It makes ATP.

9
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What is the function of helicase in DNA replication?

To separate the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands of DNA together.

10
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What is the role of DNA polymerase?

To build the complementary strand of DNA.

11
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What type of organisms reproduce by binary fission?

All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes.

12
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What are the stages of mitosis in order?

1. Prophase, 2. Metaphase, 3. Anaphase, 4. Telophase.

13
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What process occurs immediately following metaphase?

Anaphase.

14
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What is a gene?

A section of DNA that codes for a specific characteristic.

15
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What is the product of transcription?

Complementary RNA.

16
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What is the product of translation?

A protein.

17
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What are the three types of RNA represented in the diagrams?

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.

18
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What are the components of a nucleotide in DNA?

Phosphate group, pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base (A, G, C, T).

19
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What is the complementary DNA strand for AGCATTGGC?

TCGTAACCG.

20
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What is the ultimate purpose of protein synthesis?

To create proteins.

21
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What are sister chromatids?

Identical copies of a chromosome connected by a centromere.

22
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What are homologous chromosomes?

Chromosomes that are similar in shape, size, and genetic content.

23
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What is the process called that results in the formation of gametes?

Meiosis

24
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During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

Prophase 1

25
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Why is crossing over important in meiosis?

It ensures genetic diversity.

26
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Differentiate between centromere and centriole.

Centromere is the bonding site of sister chromatids; centriole is the structure that attaches spindle fibers to centromeres.

27
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What is the difference between sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes?

Sister chromatids are replicated DNA, while homologous chromosomes are chromosomes with the same genes in the same order.

28
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What is the relationship between gametes and zygotes?

Two haploid gametes combine to form one diploid zygote.

29
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What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis?

Chromosomes align at the cell's equator.

30
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How does anaphase I differ from anaphase II?

Anaphase I separates homologous chromosomes, while anaphase II separates sister chromatids.

31
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What type of cells undergo mitosis and meiosis?

Mitosis occurs in body/somatic cells; meiosis occurs in reproductive cells.

32
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How many times is DNA replicated during mitosis and meiosis?

DNA is replicated once in both mitosis and meiosis.

33
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How many times does cytokinesis occur in mitosis and meiosis?

Cytokinesis occurs once in mitosis and twice in meiosis.

34
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What is the end product of mitosis and meiosis in terms of cell number?

Mitosis produces 2 cells; meiosis produces 4 cells.

35
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Are the end products of mitosis and meiosis haploid or diploid?

Mitosis produces diploid cells; meiosis produces haploid cells.

36
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What is an allele?

An allele is a variant of a gene.

37
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What are the alleles that code for the stripes on honeybees?

The alleles code for black stripes or cordovan (light brown) stripes.

38
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What is the genotype and phenotype of the male honeybee in the cross?

The genotype is bb and the phenotype is cordovan.

39
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What terms apply to the female honeybee in the cross?

Pure breeding, homozygous, dominant.

40
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What is the expected percentage of homozygous offspring in the F2 generation?

50%.

41
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What is the expected percentage of offspring with cordovan stripes in the F2 generation?

25%.

42
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What are the possible genotypes of the offspring from a cross between a heterozygous pea plant and a white flower pea plant?

Purple or white flowers.

43
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What is the genotypic ratio from the cross of a heterozygous pea plant with a white flower pea plant?

1:2:1.

44
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What are the predicted phenotypes and their percentages from the cross?

Purple: 50%, White: 50%.

45
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What is the male and female genotype for gender determination?

Male: XY; Female: XX.

46
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What is the likelihood of an offspring being female from a Punnett square for gender?

50%.

47
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Calculate the number of allele combinations for the following genotypes: PP, Rr, TTRr, PpTtRRGr.

PP: 1; Rr: 2; TTRr: 2; PpTtRRGr: 8.

48
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What traits are being studied in the dihybrid cross of rabbits?

Grey hair (dominant) vs. white hair; black eyes (dominant) vs. red eyes.

49
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What are the gametes produced by the cross of GgBb parents?

GB, Gb, gB, gb

50
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What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring from the mating described?

Gray fur and black eyes: 9/16, gray fur and red eyes: 3/16, white fur and black eyes: 3/16, white fur and red eyes: 1/16

51
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How many different gametes can the genotype PP produce?

1

52
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How many different gametes can the genotype Rr produce?

2

53
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How many different gametes can the genotype TTRr produce?

2

54
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How many different gametes can the genotype PpTtRRGr produce?

8

55
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What term describes the pattern of inheritance where a female with horizontal stripes and a male with vertical stripes produce offspring with a grid pattern?

Codominance

56
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What genetic pattern is demonstrated by a female with large paws and a male with small paws producing offspring with medium-sized paws?

Incomplete dominance

57
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Which pedigree represents an X-linked condition?

The left side.

58
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Which condition is autosomal, the left or right pedigree?

The right side.

59
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Why is the right condition considered autosomal?

It affects males and females equally.

60
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Is either condition dominant?

Yes, the right condition is dominant.

61
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What does 'fit' mean from an evolutionary perspective according to Darwin's theory?

It refers to which organism can live the longest to successfully reproduce.

62
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Summarize Darwin's Theory of Evolution.

Natural selection produces populations that are uniquely suited to their environment.

63
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What were Lamarck's ideas about biological diversity?

Use and disuse; inheritance of acquired characteristics.

64
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What are vestigial structures?

Structures that have lost their original function, like the small pelvis in whales.

65
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What are analogous structures?

Structures that serve similar functions but have different origins, like kangaroo and grasshopper legs.

66
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What are homologous structures?

Anatomical features in different species that share a common ancestry.

67
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What are the Hardy-Weinberg values for a population with 3% recessive phenotype?

p = 0.83, p² = 0.69, q = 0.17, q² = 0.03, % heterozygotes = 28%, % dominant phenotype = 97%.

68
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What are the three domains in current classification systems?

Archaea, Eukaryota, and Eubacteria.

69
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What are the two kingdoms of prokaryotes mentioned in the notes?

Archae and Eubacteria.

70
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What is the correct sequence of taxonomic ranks from largest to smallest?

Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, species.

71
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Which taxon levels are missing from the list provided?

Genus, kingdom, domain.

72
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What two components make up a complete scientific name?

Genus and species.

73
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Define biosphere.

The entire portion of Earth inhabited by life; the sum of all the planet's ecosystems.

74
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What is an ecosystem?

All the organisms in a given area, along with the abiotic factors with which they interact.

75
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What is a community in ecological terms?

An assemblage of all the populations of organisms living close enough together for potential interactions.

76
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Define population in ecology.

A group of individuals belonging to one species that live in the same geographic area and can potentially interbreed.

77
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What defines a species?

A group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring.

78
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What is a producer?

An organism that derives the organic compounds and energy it needs from the consumption of other organisms.

79
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What is the role of a consumer in an ecosystem?

An organism that eats other living organisms.

80
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Define decomposer.

A prokaryote or fungus that secretes enzymes that digest molecules in organic material and convert them to inorganic forms.

81
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What is a scavenger?

An animal that feeds on the carcasses of dead animals.

82
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What is the difference between abiotic and biotic components of an ecosystem?

Biotic: living factors; Abiotic: nonliving factors.

83
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Differentiate between a food chain and a food web.

A food chain is a simple depiction of how energy travels up the trophic levels, while a food web shows how food chains are interconnected.

84
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What is the primary source of energy for most food chains and webs?

The Sunlight.

85
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What process converts sunlight into usable energy for living things?

Photosynthesis.

86
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What role do decomposers play in the ecosystem?

Recycle nutrients.

87
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List the three types of symbiotic relationships and provide examples.

Mutualism (both benefit), commensalism (one benefits, other isn't harmed), parasitism (one benefits, other is harmed).

88
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What are the two non-symbiotic relationships mentioned?

Predatory/prey and competition.

89
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Explain the difference between predator-prey relationships and competition.

Predator-prey is when one population benefits by eating another, while competition occurs between two similar organisms vying for resources.

90
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Differentiate between parasitism, mutualism, and commensalism.

Parasitism: one benefits and other is harmed; Mutualism: both benefit; Commensalism: one benefits and other is neither harmed nor benefited.

91
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What does an energy pyramid represent and why is it shaped like a triangle?

It represents how energy travels up the trophic levels, shaped like a triangle because the energy decreases at higher levels.

92
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Based on the 10% rule, how much energy will a tertiary consumer have access to if primary consumers have 120 Kcal/M2/Yr?

1.2 Kcal.

93
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What are the four rates that determine population size?

Birth (increase), deaths (decrease), immigration (increase), and emigration (decrease).

94
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What is carrying capacity and how is it represented on a graph?

Carrying capacity shows the maximum number of individuals a population can sustain before it shrinks, represented as a wave line.

95
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Identify some density-dependent and density-independent limiting factors affecting populations.

Density-dependent: food, resources, predator/prey, disease; Density-independent: weather, fire, rocks, earthquake.

96
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What should be labeled on a graph of a population where resources shift from unlimited to limited?

Exponential growth and carrying capacity.