Project+ quizzes

Which of the following is the most critical for the project manager (PM) to share with leaders to obtain approval to start a project and secure funding and resources?

A. A business case
B. An executive summary
C. A problem statement
D. A problem analysis

A. A business case

An organization has tasked a project manager (PM) to update the business case. The PM has new data that needs to go into the cost-benefit analysis and risks. What part of the business case does the PM need to update?

A. Options
B. Problem analysis
C. Financial overview
D. Project analysis

C. Financial overview

A project manager (PM) needs to determine a project's return on investment (ROI). In this case, the project's net profit is $50,000.00, costing $15,000.00. What is the ROI?

A. 233.33%
B. 30.00%
C. 3.33%
D. 333.33%

D. 333.33%

A project manager (PM) needs to calculate the return on investment (ROI). The project has generated a revenue of $23,000 with a cost of $108,000. What is the ROI?

A. 21.30%
B. -78.70%
C. -369.57%
D. 78.70%

B. -78.70%

A project manager's assistant has calculated many financial aspects of the business case. The project manager (PM) has asked the assistant to determine ESGs for a major water plant facility. What would the assistant add for governance?

A. Water management
B. Human rights
C. Stakeholder engagement
D. Employee benefits

C. Stakeholder engagement

What is a group of several related projects that have a common objective to accomplish a big goal?

A. Program
B. Stakeholders
C. Senior management
D. Sponsors

A. Program

A newly-hired project manager (PM) works for a major software company. Which of the following onboarding events can be categorized as operational work for a project manager when a new employee joins their team? (Select all that apply.)

A. Maintains project historical information.
B. Conducting routine quality assurance reviews.
C. Completes appropriate background checks at onset of project.
D. Establish single sign-on for all assigned users.

A. Maintains project historical information.
B. Conducting routine quality assurance reviews.

Different organizational structures give different roles to project managers (PMs). For example, a corporation has a PM responsible for assigning work but does not have budget responsibilities or any official authority over the people doing the work. The PM is in what type of organizational structure?

A. Weak matrix
B. Projectized
C. Functional
D. Strong matrix

A. Weak matrix

In a business endeavor, what role leads, plans, and aligns endeavors to organizational strategy?

A. Program manager
B. Project manager
C. Supportive project management office
D. Directive project management office

A. Program manager

A major production company's project manager (PM) is closing a software implementation project. The PM is now responsible for eliciting feedback from the contributors that directly assisted in the creation of the software. The PM is seeking feedback from which influencer role?

A. Internal customer
B. End-user
C. Sponsor
D. Senior management

A. Internal customer

Which of the following are considered Scrum values describing how people should approach each other? (Select all that apply.)

A. Commitment
B. Focus
C. Adaptation
D. Openness

A. Commitment
B. Focus
D. Openness

A team is working through a Kanban board. What are some activities within the four-part workflow? (Select all that apply.)

A. Prioritizing and ordering the backlog
B. Selecting the top-ordered backlog items and moving it into progress
C. Moving items through the workflow, while keeping within WIP
D. Selecting the next item in the backlog before the team is ready to start new work

A. Prioritizing and ordering the backlog
B. Selecting the top-ordered backlog items and moving it into progress
C. Moving items through the workflow, while keeping within WIP

A project manager (PM) is working with an agile team that is building small sections at a time and reviewing their progress. In this way, the team can adapt to their approach. For example, the team plans to release their part to production but need to ensure it is the appropriate time. What type of development is this agile framework team implementing?

A. Iterative and incremental development
B. Incremental development
C. Iterative development
D. Enterprise resource planning

A. Iterative and incremental development

What are some of the principles that represent the philosophy and best practices of PRINCE2? (Select all that apply.)

A. Continued business justification
B. Learn from experience
C. Defined roles and responsibilities
D. Restrict to suit the product

A. Continued business justification
B. Learn from experience
C. Defined roles and responsibilities

A project manager (PM) works through the common SDLC phases and has just created a low-function prototype. What phase is next?

A. Requirements
B. Testing
C. Development
D. Deployment

C. Development

What is a document that describes how project requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project lifecycle?

A. Project schedule
B. Communication requirements
C. Requirements management plan
D. Change request

C. Requirements management plan

What are the differences between agile and waterfall teams when delivering products? (Select all that apply.)

A. Waterfall teams deliver the big design up front, while agile teams deliver in small batches.
B. Waterfall teams deliver customers nearly finished products, while agile teams deliver in iterations or increments.
C. Waterfall teams deliver in small batches, while agile teams deliver a big design upfront.
D. Waterfall teams deliver in increments, while agile teams deliver customers nearly finished products.

A. Waterfall teams deliver the big design up front, while agile teams deliver in small batches.
B. Waterfall teams deliver customers nearly finished products, while agile teams deliver in iterations or increments.

What is the biggest difference between waterfall and agile?

A. Waterfall uses iterative and incremental design, while agile uses Big Design Up Front (BDUF).
B. Waterfall is adaptable, while agile is linear and sequential.
C. Waterfall is structured, while agile is flexible.
D. Waterfall is for projects whose requirements will change, while agile is for short simple projects.

C. Waterfall is structured, while agile is flexible.

What is a function of both product owners on agile teams and project managers?

A. Product owners and project managers both manage teams.
B. Product owners and project managers both measure productivity on a project.
C. Product owners and project managers both create work for teams.
D. Product owners and project managers both get involved with the details of the project work.

C. Product owners and project managers both create work for teams.

A project manager (PM) is working on a project with a flexible budget and has just defined cost inputs and parameters at the start of the project. The PM is working on what type of project?

A. Agile project
B. Waterfall project
C. Scrum project
D. PRINCE2

A. Agile project

A project manager at an information technology (IT) consulting firm has received new tasks to add to the project plan. What are some activities included in creating a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)? (Select all that apply.)

A. List the work breakdown structure (WBS) elements or product backlog items (PBIs) in the first column.
B. List the project team members, stakeholders, and other necessary parties across the top columns.
C. Assign who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for completing work.
D. Ensure that every person has a role for each task.

A. List the work breakdown structure (WBS) elements or product backlog items (PBIs) in the first column.
B. List the project team members, stakeholders, and other necessary parties across the top columns.
C. Assign who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for completing work.

What engagement organizes project management activities, with the PM as the primary audience?

A. Stakeholder engagement plan
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Stakeholder register
D. Engagement approach

A. Stakeholder engagement plan

What are some of the responsibilities of a business analyst (BA)? (Select all that apply.)

A. A business analyst writes tests against technical requirements.
B. A business analyst helps define the project.
C. A business analyst gathers business and technical requirements.
D. A business analyst assists with testing and validation.

B. A business analyst helps define the project.
C. A business analyst gathers business and technical requirements.
D. A business analyst assists with testing and validation.

A project manager (PM) just received the project scope and activities and is building their project team. What data point about a potential team member is NOT needed to create other artifacts in the initiation phase?

A. Contact method
B. Availability
C. Project responsibilities
D. Employment history

D. Employment history

A project manager (PM) has just assembled the project team. The PM needs to start the next process and build the organizational chart. What are the sections in a project organizational chart that typically include high-level individuals responsible for oversight, guidance, and funding of the project? (Select all that apply.)

A. Stakeholder
B. Sponsor
C. Steering committee
D. End-user

B. Sponsor
C. Steering committee

What high-level documents share major progress points, such as new feature rollouts?

A. Milestone charts
B. Project road maps
C. Gantt charts
D. Project charter

B. Project road maps

What components of the general project information does a project charter include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Project name
B. Project description
C. Risk management plan
D. Project sponsor

A. Project name
B. Project description
D. Project sponsor

Which statement defines the project and is created at an early stage to reflect the stakeholders' common understanding of what will be performed in the project?

A. Project charter
B. Project scope
C. Milestone chart
D. Gantt chart

B. Project scope

What are examples of artifacts that a project manager should include in the records management plan? (Select all that apply.)

A. The approved project budget
B. An email discussing the best date/time for the project kickoff meeting
C. Audit results covering the duration of the project
D. Facility certifications for space used to conduct project business

A. The approved project budget
C. Audit results covering the duration of the project
D. Facility certifications for space used to conduct project business

Elements of a records management plan flow through a cycle, which includes standards for each stage. What are the stages of the records management plan lifecycle?

A. Creation, storage and retrieval, and archival and disposition
B. Storage and retrieval, archival and disposition, and version control
C. Creation, storage and retrieval, and maintenance
D. Creation, archival and disposition, and authorized users

A. Creation, storage and retrieval, and archival and disposition

A team is responsible for purchasing resources for a large construction project. It is their shared responsibility to minimize the possibility of waste and maximize value in the project. Using a purchasing and fiscal perspective, what resource management technique should the team apply to help the project?

A. Include a summary of assumptions and risks in the financial plan.
B. Assess all environmental considerations in the project plan.
C. Draft a current state diagram.
D. Draft a future state diagram.

A. Include a summary of assumptions and risks in the financial plan.

A team creates a quality assurance plan during the planning phase of a project. Which questions does a quality assurance plan address? (Select all that apply.)

A. How will the team verify that the project meets expectations?
B. If the risk were to occur, what is the monetary loss?
C. How can the team prevent defects?
D. If the process is not working, how can the team recognize and improve the process?

A. How will the team verify that the project meets expectations?
C. How can the team prevent defects?
D. If the process is not working, how can the team recognize and improve the process?

What type of communication is also referred to as real-time communication?

A. Synchronous communication
B. Asynchronous communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Nonverbal communication

A. Synchronous communication

A geographically dispersed team frequently collaborates through teleconferencing software. The software is commonly used in the United States, but team members in Europe are unfamiliar with the platform. What type of communication challenge is the team facing?

A. Cultural differences
B. Technological factors
C. Language barriers
D. Conflict management

B. Technological factors

A project manager works with a team to develop a web application. Midway through the process, two senior level programmers begin having disagreements about which font type to use on the user interface. Which conflict resolution strategy should be leveraged to arrive at the best case scenario?

A. Smoothing
B. Forcing
C. Compromising
D. Collaborating

D. Collaborating

A project manager wants to select a productivity tool that will share major progress points, including new feature rollouts and products that would serve well in an executive summary. Which of the following tools would be the best option?

A. Project roadmaps
B. Milestone charts
C. Kanban board
D. Project charter

A. Project roadmaps

An agile team is working with the extreme programming model to develop a web application that needs to be ready within the next 30 days. Recognizing that a highly detailed project plan will be needed, the team elects to use a bar chart where the 30-day timeframe is broken down into daily representations on the x-axis and all tasks/activities are recorded on the y-axis. What productivity tool would help keep the team on task with milestones and specify the tasks needed to reach the milestone events?

A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. Project roadmap
D. Project charter

A. Gantt chart

What type of system combines workflows and user interfaces to create a one-stop experience for support?

A. Calendaring tools
B. Ticketing or case management system
C. Real-time surveys and polls
D. Print media

B. Ticketing or case management system

A project manager (PM) is dividing up responsibilities amongst team members prior to their kickoff meeting. The PM assigned the software team as responsible for development of the core software code. What is included in the responsible category of the RACI chart?

A. The software is not complete until the software team approves it.
B. The software team will give advice on the project.
C. The software team will complete the work.
D. The software team will receive updates but not interact with the build.

C. The software team will complete the work.

A project team is meeting to discuss their options for improving and re-designing existing software code. What project management type of performance diagram can incorporate multiple factors and map various outcomes from a single decision?

A. Decision tree
B. Data flow diagram
C. Mind map
D. Quadrant diagram

A. Decision tree

Which sections are included in an escalation plan? (Select all that apply.)

A. Category
B. Level
C. Escalation owner
D. Records

A. Category
B. Level
C. Escalation owner

Which communication plan methods ensure the message shared matches reality? (Select all that apply.)

A. Capturing information
B. Centralizing information
C. Reflecting reality
D. Project auditing

A. Capturing information
B. Centralizing information
C. Reflecting reality

What is the first step in developing a communication plan?

A. Identify stakeholders.
B. Create the project communication plan.
C. Schedule everything.
D. Identify stakeholder communication preferences.

A. Identify stakeholders.

What type of data requires communication security where the data has limited access and is only available to authorized users?

A. Public data
B. Private data
C. Confidential data
D. Critical data

C. Confidential data

A team is in the planning phase of a large project. The project involves protected intellectual property included in a new video game. What communication security methods will the team need to apply during the planning session? (Select all that apply.)

A. Communication archiving
B. Nondisclosure agreements
C. Encrypted communication
D. Centralizing information

B. Nondisclosure agreements
C. Encrypted communication

A government organization needs to select a secure method for communicating with public customers. Their top priorities are protected communication and adherence to regulatory guidelines. Which of the following solution design elements are the most critical in this scenario? (Select all that apply.)

A. Scalability
B. Compatibility
C. Compliance
D. Security

C. Compliance
D. Security

A team develops a website for a client in the grocery industry. The client requests a complex interface that allows consumers to order items for delivery. Additionally, the inventory must be queried and adjusted based on orders placed to ensure consumers are seeing real-time availability. What elements of the solution design process does the team include in this project? (Select all that apply.)

A. Scalability
B. Extensibility
C. High-level design
D. Functional requirement

C. High-level design
D. Functional requirement

A project manager (PM) develops a graph for the team's stakeholders. The PM wants to be able to visually depict a comparison in the improvement in quality scores against the cost of achieving them. What type of project tool would best meet the PM's requirements?

A. Law of diminishing returns chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Escalation plan
D. Communication plan

A. Law of diminishing returns chart

A solution architect decides how they can best maximize their time remaining before they must deliver software to a client. How should the architect prioritize the features of the software and still meet their deadline?

A. Hardware requirements
B. Constraints
C. Functional requirements
D. Software products

C. Functional requirements

A manufacturing company needs to develop a report that shows its stakeholders which resources generate the most revenue for the company. Which of the following charts would be the best fit?

A. Burndown chart
B. Burnup chart
C. Pareto chart
D. Gantt chart

C. Pareto chart

A medical records company wants to upgrade to a more secure database management system (DBMS). They are responsible for thousands of personal health records, billing and financial data, and organizational records. Which of the following data types should the company be the most concerned with safeguarding when selecting a DBMS vendor?

A. Public data
B. Confidential data
C. Internal data
D. Secret data

B. Confidential data

A company plans to expand its business throughout the southeast, including the state of Virginia. What additional data regulation will the company need to take into consideration?

A. GDPR
B. CDPA
C. CPRA
D. ESG

B. CDPA

A dashboard analyst develops reports and dashboards for key stakeholders. What type of privacy considerations must be taken into consideration when developing outward facing reports? (Select all that apply.)

A. Is the data already public and will not cause relative harm if viewed by outside parties?
B. Does the dashboard reflect internal data, which is not otherwise public information?
C. Does the dashboard contain confidential data, and if so, has access been set appropriately?
D. Does the dashboard include additional costs that will become a financial burden on the stakeholders?

A. Is the data already public and will not cause relative harm if viewed by outside parties?
B. Does the dashboard reflect internal data, which is not otherwise public information?
C. Does the dashboard contain confidential data, and if so, has access been set appropriately?

What are the three most common tiers in an N-tier architecture? (Select all that apply.)

A. Presentation
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Data

A. Presentation
C. Application
D. Data

What is the minimum clearance requirement for employees who will have access to material that may cause damage to national security if disclosed without authorization?

A. Secret
B. Top secret
C. Sensitive compartmented information
D. Confidential

D. Confidential

A project manager prepares to distribute tasks to the project team. Before doing this, the project manager must determine each team member's available time. How will the project manager calculate a team member's available time?

A. Overhead hours subtracted from allocation time
B. The number of projects on which the employee is working divided by working hours in a week
C. Overhead time divided by working hours
D. Overhead hours subtracted from available working hours

D. Overhead hours subtracted from available working hours

A company's CEO has announced they are retiring. What resource management activity should the company begin to pursue if they have not already?

A. Succession planning
B. Maintenance and monitoring
C. Acquisition
D. Improvement

A. Succession planning

A project manager (PM) is launching a yearlong project that will focus on continuous software development for a well-established firm. Due to the lifecycle of the project, which life cycle phase should focus on employee retention?

A. Acquisition
B. Maintenance and monitoring
C. Improvement
D. Retirement

B. Maintenance and monitoring

A database manager has begun to notice a decline in key performance indicators (KPIs) on their database. Which phase of the resource lifecycle should the manager prioritize first?

A. Acquisition
B. Retirement
C. Improvement
D. Maintenance and monitoring

D. Maintenance and monitoring

A project manager needs to establish a project team for a new web design project. Before assigning responsibility and bringing on team members, what must the project manager conduct?

A. Succession planning
B. Needs assessment
C. Resource allocation
D. Resource optimization

B. Needs assessment

A project is two weeks behind schedule, and the project manager (PM) does not know why. So the PM is planning a team brainstorming activity to find the potential cause of this delay. What gap analysis tool will the PM use?

A. Resource leveling
B. Probability cost estimate
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Utilization gap

C. Fishbone diagram

A team has purchased two 3D printers to print the house models for the client. The printers are both available for 120 hours each. The team uses printer A for 70 hours of work, while printer B is for 90 hours. What is the total utilization of both printers?

A. 33%
B. 75.60%
C. 66.60%
D. 50%

C. 66.60%

One of the three quality assurance (QA) testers for a website project has complained about being burned out. Upon checking the skills matrix, the project manager (PM) sees that of the three, the burned-out QA tester is an expert QA for backend testing, optimization, and mobile testing. How would the PM handle this situation of an employee experiencing burnout? (Select all that apply.)

A. Increase pay and assign less work to the burned-out tester.
B. Check the utilization gap for other testers and level the resources.
C. Provide the burned-out tester an extra three days of leave every quarter.
D. Train other QA testers to increase team performance.

B. Check the utilization gap for other testers and level the resources.
D. Train other QA testers to increase team performance.

A project manager (PM) for a software project creates an e-commerce site for a client. Upon checking the skills matrix, the PM finds that 7 out of 10 team members do not have the skills for creating a backend database. How will the PM close the skill gap on the project? (Select all that apply.)

A. Assign all the work to the remaining three skilled workers.
B. Train the seven team members on backend database development.
C. Hire more team members that know about database development.
D. Contract backend development to external service to complete the project in time.

B. Train the seven team members on backend database development.
C. Hire more team members that know about database development.
D. Contract backend development to external service to complete the project in time.

Two software engineers are working on an e-commerce project. Both are available for 100 hours each. However, the first engineer is scheduled for 30 hours a week, while the second engineer has 50 hours a week. What is the utilization rate of the second engineer in this project?

A. 55%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

D. 50%

A project manager for a plastic bottle company noticed that the material cost of plastic was expected to decrease by 30%. How will the project manager classify such a decrease in material price?

A. Change
B. Negative risk
C. Positive risk
D. Issue

C. Positive risk

A project manager is in the process of finding the likelihood of a project risk. Of the following, which of the tools can the team NOT use?

A. Probability impact
B. Scenario analysis
C. FMEA
D. Utilization gap

D. Utilization gap

Due to the pandemic, the team is adopting a remote work environment and is upgrading the infrastructure to move to cloud services. What could be positive risks associated with this process?

A. Downtime during migration and testing
B. Increase in documentation for a new system
C. Remote working and opportunities for recruiting more talent
D. More required training time to learn new digital skills

C. Remote working and opportunities for recruiting more talent

A project manager (PM) for a hearing aid manufacturing company recently discovered that customers have complained about a potential flaw in their hearing aid, causing high volumes. Upon checking the sample sent by the customer, the PM found the unit incorrectly wired. What should the PM do immediately?

A. Inform stakeholders and issue a Notice of Escape to the customers.
B. No need to alert the stakeholders; continue with the work.
C. Give a refund to the customer and continue with the work.
D. Ask the QA team to work overtime to fix the issue.

A. Inform stakeholders and issue a Notice of Escape to the customers.

A business analyst is managing a project for a new training website and needs to perform the qualitative risk analysis process. When the analyst completes the process, which of the following list of items will NOT be a part of the project document?

A. Risks grouped by categories
B. List of low-priority risks
C. Probability of achieving time and cost estimates
D. Priority list of risks

C. Probability of achieving time and cost estimates

The project manager (PM) has identified a risk event on the current project that could save $50,000 in project costs if it occurs. Based on this, which of the following is true?

A. The PM should avoid this risk event to take advantage of its full potential.
B. The PM should mitigate this risk event to take advantage of the savings.
C. This risk event is an opportunity, and the PM should exploit it.
D. The PM should accept this risk event since the reward is greater than the threat to the project.

C. This risk event is an opportunity, and the PM should exploit it.

The equipment delivery team leader has left a voicemail saying that a forest fire in California might prevent the equipment from arriving on time. The team leader wanted to give the customer an advanced warning. Which of the following statements is true?

A. This is a contingency plan.
B. This is a residual risk.
C. This is a risk mitigation plan.
D. This is a trigger.

D. This is a trigger.

A senior developer for an e-commerce website of critical importance has to go on leave of absence due to a family emergency. What should a project manager (PM) do for this risk?

A. Transfer this risk by getting insurance for intellectual property.
B. Conduct a qualitative risk assessment by asking other team members.
C. Follow the risk mitigation plan.
D. Follow the contingency plan for this risk.

D. Follow the contingency plan for this risk.

After several months of building and testing the e-commerce marketing feature, it is ready to go live. The development team has invited the operational team for the hand-off. The project manager senses a mitigation conflict during this period. What can the project manager do in this case?

A. Follow the transition plan guidelines.
B. Accept this risk as it can happen between different teams.
C. This is an educational risk, and the PM should embrace it.
D. Conduct impact analysis and leave it as is.

A. Follow the transition plan guidelines.

A parts manufacturing company from the Midwest area of the U.S. has sent a letter of notice citing the potential parts shortage due to supply chain issues. The project manager identified a risk response strategy for this and arranged for local companies to create parts until there is a solution to the supply chain problem. This is an example of what type of risk response strategy?

A. Mitigate
B. Avoid
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer

A. Mitigate

The company has hired a project manager (PM) to manage the execution of a project. However, a new college intern is unsure of what work to accomplish on the project and asks the PM. Where can the PM find the detailed description of the work packages?

A. WBS dictionary
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Activity list

A. WBS dictionary

A project manager (PM) must break down the work to the company's engineers for a website development project, with a hard deadline of five weeks. The marketing team has requested three fixed and three preferred deliverables for the project if the time is available. The team is self-organizing. How will the PM break down this project?

A. Create a WBS with level 1 and level 2.
B. Create an activity list.
C. Create a project backlog.
D. Create a task list for each engineer.

C. Create a project backlog.

A project manager (PM) is about to start the breakdown of a project for execution. The PM follows which order for the WBS creation process?

A. Determine scope, identify deliverable, identify team members, build level 2
B. Build level 2, determine scope, identify team members, identify deliverables
C. Identify deliverables, determine scope, identify team members, build level 2
D. Build level 2, identify scope, determine deliverables, identify team members

A. Determine scope, identify deliverable, identify team members, build level 2

A project manager (PM) has established multiple milestones for a two-year-long project. However, each milestone checkpoint occurs at the one-year mark. What might be the potential issue with this approach?

A. Fewer meetings
B. Losing project momentum
C. Stakeholder conflict
D. Expensive cost of the project

B. Losing project momentum

A project manager (PM) must break down the development of a game development project to its five engineers, three testers, and two designers. The team is currently using the agile framework to develop the game. How could the PM break down the project backlog?

A. In this order: Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3
B. In this order: Level 2, Level 1, and Level 3
C. In this order: User Stories, Epic, and Features
D. In this order: Epic, Feature, and User Stories

D. In this order: Epic, Feature, and User Stories

A project manager (PM) drafts a sequence of activities for a government website creation project catered to people with disabilities. However, the engineers cannot hand over the project until the accessibility auditor from the third-party organization verifies the accessibility standards for this website comply with the American Disabilities Act (ADA). What would be the best category for this dependency?

A. Internal dependency
B. Internal discretionary dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Mandatory external dependency

D. Mandatory external dependency

A project manager (PM) is drafting a sequence of activities for an educational website project designed for blind people and those with various vision impairments. A third-party accessibility auditor will finish approving the website design at the engineer's conclusion of the website demo. What kind of dependency exists between the website demo and accessibility audit?

A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish

D. Finish-to-Finish

Upon consulting a network engineer, the project manager (PM) learns that the engineer can install the software after the completion of the server migration. What kind of dependency is between the server migration and software installation activity?

A. Finish-to-Start
B. Finish-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Start-to-Finish

A. Finish-to-Start

Upon surveying the stakeholders for a project costs estimation, the project manager (PM) found that if everything happens perfectly, it is $5,000, and the most likely estimate is $10,000. However, if everything goes wrong, the project cost estimation is $21,000. Based on this information, what will be the probable cost estimate for the project?

A. $10,000
B. $21,000
C. $12,000
D. $17,000

C. $12,000

A junior project manager (PM) assigns resources to a delivery tracking software project. Upon checking the responsibility assignment matrix (RAM), the PM finds that two senior developers are accountable for the app development activity, four junior developers are responsible for the app development activity, one software architect for consultation, and a project director for reporting. What could be the potential issue in this RAM?

A. Assigning two senior developers accountable for the software development activity
B. Assigning four junior developers responsible for the software development activity
C. Having only one software architect for consultation
D. Assigning only one project director to inform about development activity

A. Assigning two senior developers accountable for the software development activity

The project team managing the new cloud computing project has just learned that the software needed for one key deliverable of the project has increased in price due to unexpected development costs. The project manager (PM) has completed the change control process for a scope change, and the client approved the change in scope. What other actions must the PM perform? (Select all that apply.)

A. Update the project budget.
B. Authorize the use of the contingency reserve.
C. Update the cost baseline.
D. Update the schedule baseline.

A. Update the project budget.
B. Authorize the use of the contingency reserve.
C. Update the cost baseline.

Activity G has a late finish (LF) of eighteen days and an early finish (EF) of three days. Activity E follows Activity G. Activity E has an early start (ES) of six days. What is the free float (FF) for Activity G?

A. 3 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 21 days

A. 3 days

The calculation of the FF of Activity G = ES of Activity E - EF of Activity G = 6-3 = 3 days.

The project to build software for a point-of-sale system has just ended, and the project team has conducted a retrospective or lessons learned meeting. The project manager stores the outputs from this meeting in a lessons learned document for which primary reason?

A. To share the project successes with the client.
B. To document disagreements within the project team to share with the team supervisor.
C. To become a reference point during the initiation phase of a similar future project.
D. To close out the documents required in the project management plan.

C. To become a reference point during the initiation phase of a similar future project.

What could be a beneficial incentive for the prospective client that a service provider could have in a service level agreement (SLA)

A. Requiring the client to pay extra for regular system performance upgrades
B. Providing credits to subscription costs for downtime exceeding a certain threshold
C. Offering a cancellation clause if the client is not happy with the performance of the system
D. Requiring the service provider to resolve all help desk tickets within one business day

B. Providing credits to subscription costs for downtime exceeding a certain threshold

A project manager (PM) has just been assigned to a new high-priority project to manage at the end of the planning phase. The PM has the preliminary scope statement, which the previous PM created in the initiation phase. There are also more detailed definitions for the project goals, scope, and requirements. What project document is the PM ready to finalize?

A. The detailed scope statement
B. The scope baseline
C. The work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. The project plan

A. The detailed scope statement

A software development project consists of a design activity with a duration of three weeks, a development activity with a duration of six weeks, and a testing activity with a duration of two weeks. The design, development, and testing activities are on a critical path method (CPM) diagram. Based on this information, what is true about this project?

A. The total float for the design, development, and testing activities is 11.
B. The total float for the design, development, and testing activities is 2.
C. The total float for the design, development, and testing activities is 8.
D. The total float for the design, development, and testing activities is 0.

D. The total float for the design, development, and testing activities is 0.

A client for a software design project has indicated that the software engineer must develop three software features early on for the product to be minimally viable. Why is creating a minimally viable product (MVP) for the client an essential step? (Select all that apply.)

A. The MVP allows the project team to receive feedback from users early in the development.
B. The MVP has all features requested to demonstrate how desirable the product is.
C. The MVP builds confidence among stakeholders.
D. The MVP has all the requirements to test the product appropriately.

A. The MVP allows the project team to receive feedback from users early in the development.
C. The MVP builds confidence among stakeholders.
D. The MVP has all the requirements to test the product appropriately.

What is the main difference between contingency reserves and management reserves?

A. Contingency reserves cover setbacks not forecasted, while management reserves cover documented risks.
B. Contingency reserves cover "unknown unknowns," while management reserves cover "known unknowns."
C. Contingency reserves cover documented risks, while management reserves cover setbacks not forecasted.
D. Only senior management authorizes contingency reserve spending, while the project manager authorizes management reserve spending.

C. Contingency reserves cover documented risks, while management reserves cover setbacks not forecasted.

On checking the critical path method (CPM) diagram for a web development project, the project manager (PM) finds that the "Design Custom Fonts" activity has an Early Start (ES) of nine weeks and a Late Start (LS) of twelve weeks. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true?

A. The total float for the Design Custom Fonts activity is nine weeks.
B. The total float for the Design Custom Fonts activity is three weeks.
C. The total float for the Design Custom Fonts activity is twelve weeks.
D. The total float for the Design Custom Fonts activity is four weeks.

B. The total float for the Design Custom Fonts activity is three weeks.

Activity G has a late finish (LF) of eighteen days and an early finish (EF) of three days. Activity E follows Activity G. Activity E has an early start (ES) of six days. What is the total float for Activity G?

A. 16 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 21 days

C. 15 days

The total float (TF) calculation is LF-EF. Since LF = 18 days and EF = 3 days, the TF for Activity G is 18-3 = 15 days.

Activity A has an optimistic (O) estimate of two days, a most likely (M) estimate of four days, and a pessimistic (P) estimate of twelve days. What is the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) estimate for this activity?

A. 6 days
B. 9 days
C. 4 days
D. 5 days

D. 5 days

The formula for a PERT estimate is (O +4M + P)/6. Here, the PERT estimate = [2+(4*4) +12]/6 = 30/6 = 5 days.

What is the main difference between a procurement contract and a purchase order (PO)?

A. A procurement contract establishes an agreement to purchase something at some point, while a PO is a customer's request for specific goods or services.
B. A procurement contract defines the terms of a vendor-buyer relationship, while a PO establishes an agreement to purchase something at some point.
C. A procurement contract is a customer's request for specific goods or services, while a PO establishes an agreement to purchase something at some point.
D. They are both legally binding documents used to purchase goods or services; therefore, there is no difference.

A. A procurement contract establishes an agreement to purchase something at some point, while a PO is a customer's request for specific goods or services.

What type of statement of work (SOW) describes the expected outcomes and minimum performance standards?

A. Design SOW
B. Functional SOW
C. Performance SOW
D. Terms of reference

C. Performance SOW

A procurement specialist collects information to develop the criteria to include in a request for proposal (RFP) for a specific product. What function can the procurement specialist perform to collect information about the product, industry trends, and potential suppliers?

A. Competitive analysis
B. Request for information
C. Purchase requisitions
D. Market research

D. Market research

A potential vendor is reviewing a request for proposal (RFP) and statement of work (SOW) for a new project. The project manager (PM) wrote the SOW as a functional SOW outlining the requirements of the finished product only. In response to the RFP, what would be suitable for the vendor to address since the PM provided a functional SOW? (Select all that apply.)

A. A creative approach used in a previous project with a similar deliverable
B. An alternative product completed for a previous project containing the same design specifications
C. A list of prior performances building the same product to demonstrate a variety of approaches
D. A list of requirements the vendor thinks the final product should include to improve it

A. A creative approach used in a previous project with a similar deliverable
C. A list of prior performances building the same product to demonstrate a variety of approaches