Epilepsy- Krysiak

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70 Terms

1
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What is SUDEP?

Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy—> sudden, unexpected death in a person with epilepsy, where underlying cause of injury/death unknown

2
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T/F: pts. with epilepsy ALL experience seizures

T

3
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T/F: all individuals who experience a seizure will be diagnosed with epilepsy.

F

4
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A chronic disorder of brain function characterized by the recurrent and unpredictable occurrence of seizures is called…

epilepsy

5
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Some seizures are provoked bc of systemic, toxic, or metabolic problems.

What’s a symptom of these problems?

fever (ex: febrile seizures)

6
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Do febrile seizures qualify as epilepsy?

No –> they’re provoked by fever and don’t recur once the fever resolves

7
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Most common cause of childhood onset and older-age onset epilepsy?

  • childhood—> genetic issues

  • older-age—> acquired structural injury (ex: stroke)

8
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The etiologies of epilepsy can be classified into what 6 categories?

Which the most common?

  1. genetics

  2. structural

  3. infectious- most common

  4. metabolic

  5. immune

  6. unknown

note: many epilepsies can belong to 2+ categories

9
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<p>What are some triggers for epilepsy?</p>

What are some triggers for epilepsy?

  • hyperventilation

  • photo stimulation (flashing lights)

  • others: stress, sleep deprivation, hormones, drugs

10
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What is the underlying general process of epilepsy? aka what happens to the neurons?

neuronal hyperexcitability + hyper synchronization

11
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What can lead to hyperexcitability in the neuron?

  • describe glutamate and GABA as inhibitory or excitatory

  • neurotransmitter changes/imbalances

    • glutamate= excitatory

    • GABA= inhibitory

  • others: alteration in ion channels, and ions in general

12
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To reduce seizure generation, would we want to increase or decrease GABA and glutamate?

  • INCREASE GABA (increase inhibition)

  • DECREASE GLUTAMATE (decrease excitation)

<ul><li><p><strong>INCREASE GABA (increase inhibition)</strong></p></li><li><p><strong>DECREASE GLUTAMATE (decrease excitation)</strong></p></li></ul><p></p>
13
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Seizures are classified based on what 3 things?

(not that imp, more of an FYI)

  1. where seizures start in the brain

  2. level of awareness during seizure

  3. other seizure features- nonmotor/motor symptoms

14
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Describing WHERE a seizure starts helps to classify it.

What are the 3 categories and describe them?

  1. focal seizures- one hemisphere of brain, unilateral, may or may not lose consciousness

  2. generalized seizures- both hemispheres of brain, bilateral, loss of awareness/consciousness

  3. unknown

<ol><li><p>focal seizures- one hemisphere of brain, unilateral, may or may not lose consciousness</p></li><li><p>generalized seizures- both hemispheres of brain, bilateral, loss of awareness/consciousness</p></li><li><p>unknown</p></li></ol><p></p>
15
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Describing the motor symptoms of a seizure helps to classify it.

What are some examples of motor and non-motor symptoms?

(idk how imp)

  • motor: rhythmical jerking (clonic), limp/weak muscles (atonic), twitches (myoclonus), rigid/tense muscles (tonic)

  • non-motor: sensations, emotions, thinking, etc.

16
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Most generalized seizures have __________ motor movement.

a. unilateral

b. bilateral

(idk how imp)

b.

17
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How is epilepsy DIAGNOSED? WHAT are the conditions?

  1. at least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring greater than 24 hours apart

  2. 1 unprovoked seizure and a probability of further seizures—> similar to the general recurrence risk (at least 60%) after 2 unprovoked seizures over the next 10 years

    • aka if a pt. only had 1 seizure but they have high risk features

  3. diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome

<ol><li><p><strong>at least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring greater than 24 hours apart</strong></p></li><li><p><strong>1 unprovoked seizure and a probability of further seizures—&gt;</strong> similar to the general recurrence risk (at least 60%) after <strong>2 </strong>unprovoked seizures over the next 10 years</p><ul><li><p><strong>aka if a pt. only had 1 seizure but they have high risk features</strong></p></li></ul></li><li><p>diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome</p></li></ol><p></p>
18
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What are the diagnostic laboratory tests for epilepsy?

TRICK QUESTION—> THERE ARE NONE

19
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Obtaining what serum levels may HELP (not diagnose) confirm seizures?

serum prolactin—> must be taken within 10-20 minutes of seizure

20
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What scans can HELP (not diagnose) confirm a seizure? gold standard?

  • electroencephalogram

    • video EEG gold standard

  • CT

  • MRI

21
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Is pharm therapy for epilepsy curative or for symptoms?

(FYI)

for symptoms

22
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Nonpharm therapy for epilepsy?

  • keto diet

  • vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)- device used as adjunctive therapy in pts. 12+ with focal seizures refractory to AEDs

  • surgery

23
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ALL anti-epileptic drugs have increased risk for what condition?

suicide

24
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What drugs are 1st gen, 2nd gen, and 3rd gen AEDs? (Anti-epileptic drugs)

  • FYI

1st gen

2nd gen

3rd gen

  • carbamazepine

  • clonazepam

  • ethosuximide

  • phenobarbital

  • phenytoin

  • primidone

  • valproate

  • felbamate

  • gabapentin

  • lamotrigine

  • levetiracetam

  • oxcarbazepine

  • tiagabine

  • topiramate

  • zonisamide

  • brivaracetam

  • cenobamate

  • esliscarbazepine

  • lacosamide

  • perampanel

  • pregabalin

  • cannabidol

25
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Answer the following about Carbamazepine (CBZ):

  • drug interactions

  • what’s unique about it’s metabolism?

  • BBW

  • ADRs

    • common

    • serious/rare

    • long term

  • inducer of CYP3A4, 1A2, 2B6, 2C9/19

  • auto-inducer (aka induces its own metabolism)

  • BBW—> increased risk of SJS/TEN with HLA-B*1502, aplastic anemia, and agranulocytosis

  • ADRs

    • common: CNS effects

    • serious/rare: blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity, DRESS rxns

    • long term: hyponatremia from SIADH, metabolic bone disease

26
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What are the advantages/DISADVANTAGES of using Carbamazepine?

  • advantages: useful in comorbid bipolar disorder and trigeminal neuralgia

  • disadvantages

    • avoid in absence seizures

    • screen for HLA-B*1502 allele

    • fetal harm

27
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Answer the following about Oxcarbazepine (CBZ):

  • drug interactions

  • is it metabolized like carbamazepine?

  • ADRs

    • common

    • serious/rare

  • D/I

    • inducer of CYP3A4, inhibits CYP2C19

    • may decrease lamotrigine levels, increase phenytoin levels

  • not the same metabolism as carb—> not auto-inducer

  • ADRs

    • common: CNS effects, GI, hyponatremia, rash

    • serious/rare: SJS, TEN, DRESS, blood dyscrasias

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What are the advantages/disadvantages to using oxcarbazepine?

(idk how imp really)

  • advantages: useful in bipolar disorder, ER useful

  • disadvantages

    • hyponatremia

    • HLA-B*1502

29
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Phenytoin uses what kind of pharmacokinetics?

michaelis-menten kinetics (saturates metabolizing enzymes at higher doses)

30
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Having low what may cause phenytoin levels to be falsely low or normal?

low albumin (<3.5 g/dl)

31
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What are the ADRs of phenytoin?

  • BBW

  • common

  • serious/rare

  • long term

  • BBW- phenytoin IV admin rate should NOT exceed 50mg/min

  • common: nystagmus (eyes moving a lot), decreased coordination, mental confusion, dizzy, insomnia, HA

  • serious/rare: blood dyscrasias, rash, DRESS, angioedema, hepatotoxicity, purple glove syndrome with IV admin, extravasation

  • long term: connective tissue changes and skin thickening, HIRSUTISM, GINGIVAL HYPERPLASIA, HEPATOTOXICITY

<ul><li><p><strong>BBW- phenytoin IV admin rate should NOT exceed 50mg/min </strong></p></li><li><p>common: nystagmus (eyes moving a lot), decreased coordination, mental confusion, dizzy, insomnia, HA</p></li><li><p>serious/rare: blood dyscrasias, rash, DRESS, angioedema, hepatotoxicity, <strong>purple glove syndrome with IV admin</strong>, extravasation</p></li><li><p>long term: connective tissue changes and skin thickening, <strong>HIRSUTISM, GINGIVAL HYPERPLASIA, HEPATOTOXICITY</strong></p></li></ul><p></p>
32
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What are the advantages/disadvantages of phenytoin?

  • FYI

  • advantages: oral or IV available, ER formulations

  • disadvantages:

    • avoid in absence seizures

    • can increase BS in DM

    • HLA-B*1502 risk factor

    • dose adjustments and monitoring

33
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What is the prodrug of phenytoin?

Fosphenytoin

34
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For administration of fosphenytoin it cannot exceed ________ PE/minute.

150mg

35
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What are the ADRs of lamotrigine?

  • BBW

  • common

  • serious/rare

  • BBW: serious skin reactions including SJS/TEN, increase risk with high dosing, quick dose escalation OR when used w/ valproic acid

  • common: n/v, somnolence, tremor, ataxia, diplopia, alopecia

  • serious/rare: DRESS, blood dyscrasias, HLH

36
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Ethosuxamide is the DOC for __________________.

absence seizures

37
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ADRs of Ethosuxamide?

serious skin rxns (SJS/TEN), blood dyscrasias, DRESS, psychiatric abnormalities

38
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ADRs of Gabapentin?

weight gain, sedation, dizzy, angioedema

39
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List the AEDs that belong to each MOA:

MOA

drugs

sodium channel blockers

calcium channel blockers

GABA enhancers

Glutamate inhibitors/ synaptic vesicle modulators

MOA

drugs

sodium channel blockers

  • phenytoin

  • carbamazepine

  • oxcarbazepine

  • lamotrigine

calcium channel blockers

  • ethosuximide

  • gabapentin

GABA enhancers

  • benzos

  • phenobarbital

  • tiagabine

  • vigabatrin

Glutamate inhibitors/ synaptic vesicle modulators

  • levetiracetam

  • valproate

40
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Benzos (clonazepam, clobazam) have what BBW? What long-term ADRs?

  • concurrent use with opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, and death

  • long term ADRs: dependence/tolerance

41
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ADRs of phenobarbital?

  • common

  • serious/rare

  • long term

  • common: CNS effects, dependence, tolerance, hangover effect

  • serious/rare: respiratory depression, apnea, bradycardia, hypotension (IV), hepatotoxicity

  • long term: metabolic bone disease, folate deficiency, behavior changes

42
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If albumin is low, the true valproic acid level will be _______than it appears.

a. higher

b. lower

a.

43
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Answer the following about valproic acid:

  • drug interactions?

  • ADRs

    • BBW

    • common

    • serious/rare

  • D/I:

    • CYP2C9 inhibitor

  • ADRs:

    • BBW: hepatic failure, fetal harm, pancreatitis

    • common: GI, weight gain, alopecia, thrombocytopenia, POCS, blurred vision

    • serious/rare: hyperammonemia, DRESS, bleeding

44
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Advantages/disadvantages of using valproic acid?

  • advantages: useful in bipolar disorder, migraines

  • disadvantages:

    • C/I in severe hepatic dysfunction, mitochondrial disorders, urea cycle disorders

    • caution pancreatitis, bleeding disorders

    • C/I in pregnancy when treated for migraine prophylaxis

45
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Advantages/disadvantages to using Levetiracetam?

  • advantages: NO SIGNIFICANT DRUG INTERACTIONS, XR useful

  • disadvantages: may worsen depression, PTSD, anxiety, thought disorders

46
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What are the ADRs of Levetiracetam?

  • common

  • serious/rare

  • common: CNS effects, agitation, aggression, depersonalization, hostility

  • serious/rare: psychosis, hallucinations

47
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Answer the following about Lacosamide:

  • ADRs

  • Interactions

  • advantages/disadvantages

  • ADRs: prolongs PR interval, increased risk of arrhythmias (obtain ECG prior)

    • common: n/v, diplopia, blurred vision, euphoria

  • Interactions: caution with medications that prolong PR interval (B blockers, CCB, digoxin) due to risk of AV block and bradycardia

  • advantages/disadvantages

    • advantages: minimal interactions

    • disadvantages: ECG prior to use, not rec in severe renal/hepatic impairment, fetal harm

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When is topiramate C/I?

trokendi XR only: alcohol use 6 hrs before or after dose— pts. with metabolic acidosis who are taking metformin

49
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What are the ADRs of topiramate?

  • common

  • serious/rare

  • long term

  • common: CNS effects

  • serious/rare: kidney stones, hypo/hyperthermia, oligohidrosis, metabolic acidosis, hyperammonemia with valproate, fetal harm

  • long term: weight loss/anorexia, renal stones

(lowkey: Zonisamide has similar ADRs)

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When is Zonisamide C/I?

sulfa hypersensitivity

51
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When is cannabidiol used?

oral solution useful for tx of refractory seizures in LGS and Dravet syndrome

52
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BBW of Felbamate?

hepatic failure, aplastic anemia

53
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Vigabatrin has a REMS program bc of what side effect?

vision loss

54
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Eslicarbazepine is a major active metabolite of ___________________.

oxcarbazepine

55
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T/F: The efficacy of newer AEDs is considered comparable to older AEDs.

true

56
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What medications require SLOW titration?

Lamotrigine, topiramate, clobazam, phenobarbital

57
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When starting AEDs, is mono or combination therapy preferred?

start with monotherapy

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What is the definition of drug resistance in epilepsy?

basically failure to control seizures after 2 medications

59
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Is concentration monitoring a therapeutic endpoint or a tool to optimize therapy?

tool to optimize therapy, NOT a therapeutic endpoint

60
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ALL AEDs act on the same part of the body so have a risk of what side effects?

  • act on brain—> so CNS side effects are a risk (sedation, dizzy, blurred vision, double vision, ataxia)

  • also have a risk of suicidal thoughts/behaviors

61
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Review:

Hypersensitivity reactions (SJS/TEN/DRESS) are most associated with aromatic anticonvulsants such as…

  • Carbamazepine

  • oxcarbazepine

  • ethosuximide

  • lamotrigine

  • phenobarbital

  • phenytoin

  • primidone

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Review:

What AEDs have a increased risk of osteoporosis/osteomalacia?

  • phenytoin

  • phenobarbital

  • Carbamazepine

  • oxcarbazepine

  • felbamate

  • valproic acid

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What are the main counseling points with AEDs?

  • can cause suicidal thoughts/actions

  • do not stop taking this medication without consulting your healthcare provider

  • seizure meds can impair judgement, thinking, coordination

  • avoid drugs that lower seizure threshold

  • use caution with generic substitutions

  • avoid st. johns wort with ALL anticonvulsants

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According to guidelines, when can AED withdrawal be considered?

  • seizure free 2-5 yrs

  • history of single type of focal seizure or generalized seizure

  • normal neuro exam/IQ

  • normal EEG

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T/F: When discontinuing AEDs, it should be done abruptly.

FALSE—> gradually

66
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In the elderly what is the DOC for focal onset seizures?

Lamotrigine

67
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What AEDs can decrease efficacy of oral contraceptives?

  • Carbamazepine

  • oxcarbazepine

  • topiramate

  • rufinamide

  • lamotrigine

  • clobazam

  • felbamate

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What should be supplemented in any women of childbearing age who is taking an AED?

folic acid

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In pregnancy, what AEDs have increased clearance?

LAMOTRIGINE, carbamazepine, phenytoin, levetiracetam

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What AEDs should NOT be used in pregnancy?

  • valproic acid

  • topiramate (cleft palate)